The Hindu Quiz

Q1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Pulakeshin II was the prominent king of Eastern Chalukyas.
2. Pulakeshin II was the contemporary of Skandgupta.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Sanskrit poet-critic Rajashekhara and was the court poet of the Gurjara-Pratiharas.
2. Vijayaditya was the ruler of Chalukyas of Badami.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                   (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2       (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. Which of the following countries does not share a land border with Paraguay?

(a) Brazil    (b) Argentina
(c) Bolivia  (d) Uruguay

Q4. Which of the following seas lies between Russia and Ukraine?

(a) Sea of Marmara    (b) Barents Sea
(c) Sea of Azov            (d) White Sea

Q5. Kerch Strait connects

(a) Black Sea and the Sea of Azov
(b) Black Sea and Sea of Marmara
(c) Sea of Marmara and Aegean Sea
(d) Aegean Sea and Mediterranean Sea

Q6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Aral Sea lies between Uzbekistan and Kazakhstan.
2. Uzbekistan does not share a land border with Tajikistan.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                   (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2       (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q7. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) is a colorless gas with a strong odor of rotten eggs.
2. Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) is used to produce textiles.

Choose the correct code:
(a) 1 only                 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q8. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Ding Liren of South Korea has been crowned king of World Chess.
2. International Chess Federation or World Chess Federation is commonly referred as FIDE.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Meitei people are the predominant ethnic group of Meghalaya.
2. Meitei language is one of the 22 official languages of India.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q10. Which of the following locations are correctly matched?

Location Country

1. Pavlohrad – Russia
2. Bryansk region – Ukraine

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                  (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2      (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q11. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. The Line of Actual Control (LA(C) is divided into three sectors.
2. The western sector of LAC generally follows the McMahon Line.

Choose the correct code:
(a) 1 only                 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q12. Which of the following countries does not share land border with Sudan?

(a) Djibouti
(b) Egypt
(c) Central African Republic
(d) Eritrea

Q13. Consider the following statements:

1. Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) is an indicator of business activity — both in the manufacturing and services sectors.
2. PMI is calculated compositely for the manufacturing and services sectors.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q14. Pobitora wildlife sanctuary is in

(a) Arunachal Pradesh       (b) Assam
(c) Jharkhand                      (d) West Bengal

Q15. Similipal Tiger reserve is in

(a) Assam            (b) Karnataka
(c) Telangana     (d) Odisha

Q16. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. The maiden ASEAN-India Maritime Exercise (AIME) was hosted in 2023 by Singapore.
2. International Maritime Defence Exhibition (IMDEX-23) and International Maritime Security Conference (IMS(C) were also hosted by Singapore.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q17. Which of the following countries does not border with Lake Victoria?

(a) Rwanda       (b) Uganda
(c) Kenya           (d) Tanzania

Q18. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. Uganda touches Western Rift Valley.
2. Eastern Rift Valley passes through Kenya.

Choose the correct code:
(a) 1 only                (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q19. Which of the following has become the first district in the country to be declared ODF (open defecation-free) Plus?

(a) Anupur        (b) Pune
(c) Wayanad     (d) Indore

Q20. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. H5N1 is mainly spread by domestic poultry.
2. H5N1 was first time detected in Africa.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                  (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2      (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q21. Which of the following countries does not share land border with Mali?

(a) Burkina Faso       (b) Mauritania
(c) Guinea                  (d) Ghana

Q22. Arrange the following countries from west to east.

(a) Croatia- Bosnia Herzegovina-Montenegro- Serbia
(b) Bosnia Herzegovina- Croatia-Montenegro- Serbia
(c) Montenegro- Serbia- Croatia- Bosnia Herzegovina
(d) Serbia- Croatia- Bosnia Herzegovina-Montenegro

Q23. Ekatha Harbour is being developed by India in which of the following countries?

(a) Sri Lanka       (b) Maldives
(c) Myanmar       (d) Bangladesh

Q24. Consider the following statements:

1. The mridangam is a percussion instrument. It is the primary rhythmic accompaniment in Carnatic music.
2. In Dhrupad, the pakhawaj, is the primary percussion instrument.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q25. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 355 of the Constitution of India provides an emergency provision for the Centre to intervene and safeguard a state against external aggression or internal disturbances.
2. Article 355 is to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q26. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. The origins of the Arab League go back to the First World War.
2. Arab League readmitted Syria after an 11-year absence.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                    (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2        (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q27. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. Korean Strait separates South Korea and Japan.
2. Yellow Sea lies to the east of the Korean Peninsula.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                  (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2      (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q28. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is released by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
2. MPI is part of UNDP’s Human Development Report (HDR) and is released annually.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                  (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2      (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q29. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. Operation Kaveri was launched by India to bring back Indian from the conflict zones in Sudan.
2. Operation Ganga was launched to bring back Indians from Russia.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                  (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2      (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q30. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. Sovereignty is mentioned in the Constitution under Fundamental Duties.
2. Article 51A(c) states that it is the duty of all citizens “to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.”

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only               (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q31. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb links the Persian Gulf with the Arabian Sea.
2. Strait of Hormuz links the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q32. Which of the following countries does not share a border with the Caspian Sea?

(a) Azerbaijan        (b) Iran
(c) Kazakhstan      (d) Uzbekistan

Q33. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. Kuno National Park lies in the Vindhyan Hills of Central India.
2. Kardhai”, “Khair” and “Salai” are the names of the hills in Vindhyan Hills.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                   (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2       (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q34. Batken Region was in the news due to violent confrontations by local communities.

Where is it located?

(a) Tajikistan          (b) Kyrgyzstan
(c) Uzbekistan       (d) Kazakhstan

Q35. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. Article 371 C of the Constitution deals with the Special provision with respect to the State of Nagaland.
2. Article 371 C was added by the 27th Amendment Act of 1971.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q36. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Article 142, Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
2. The powers under Article 142 are sweeping in nature but SC has defined its scope and extent through its judgments over time.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                  (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2      (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q37. Consider the following statements:

1. The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was constituted as a statutory body.
2. The Raghuram Rajan Committee on financial sector reforms first proposed the creation of FSDC.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q38. Consider the following statements:

1. Moon passes through the light, the outer part of Earth’s shadow, called the penumbra.
2. Every lunar eclipse begins and ends with a penumbral stage.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                     (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2         (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q39. Consider the following statements:

1. Amalaka or Kalash which is installed on Shikhara is a characteristic feature of the Nagara style.
2. Kandariya Mahadev Temple in Madhya Pradesh is an example of the Nagara style of temple architecture.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                  (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q40. Poland changes Kaliningrad’s name in a move against ‘Russification’. It will now officially be called ‘Konigsberg’.

It is located in which of the following countries?

(a) Belarus         (b) Estonia
(c) Russia           (d) Poland

Q41. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. Sahel is defined as the ecoclimatic and biogeographic realm of transition between the Sahara to the north and the Sudanian savanna to the south.
2. Mali in Sahel region has the world’s highest fertility rate.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                      (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2          (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q42. Which of the following countries does not border with Lake Chad?

(a) Chad      (b) Sudan
(c) Niger     (d) Nigeria

Q43. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. The Land Ports Authority of India or LPAI is a statutory body.
2. LPAI is working under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                  (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2      (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q44. Srivilliputhur-Megamalai Tiger Reserve is in which of the following states?

(a) Andhra Pradesh       (b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu               (d) Telangana

Q45. Chham Dance is the folk dance of which of the following regions?

(a) Lahaul                                 (b) Kumaon
(c) Arunachal Pradesh           (d) Garhwal

Q46. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. Monkeypox is a contagious viral disease that can affect humans and some animals alike.
2. Mpox is no longer a global health emergency according to WHO.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q47. Jericho and Hebron are the cities located in

(a) West Bank         (b) Gaza Strip
(c) Israel                  (d) Syria

Q48. Consider the following statements:

1. Sea of Galilee borders West Bank.
2. Dead Sea borders Gaza Strip.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                   (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2       (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q49. Bakhmut is a city located in

(a) Turkey        (b) Kyrgyzstan
(c) Iran             (d) Ukraine

Q50. Consider the following statements:

1. Greenwashing is an act by a country or a company projecting its efforts or its products as climate friendly.
2. The term greenwashing was first used in 1986 by Jay Westerveld, an American environmentalist and researcher.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q51. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. Niacin (vitamin B3) in millet can help lower cholesterol.
2. Millets are anti-acidic.

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                     (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2         (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q52. Which of following statements is/are correct?

1. Mitochondria are often referred to as the powerhouses of the cell.
2. Chemical energy produced by the mitochondria is stored in a small molecule called adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

Choose the correct code:

(a) 1 only                    (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2        (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q53. Consider the following statements about 2+2 dialogue:

1. It is a format of a meeting of the foreign and defense ministers of India and its allies on strategic and security issues.
2. India has 2+2 dialogues with the United States and Australia only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only                  (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2      (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q54. Nagorno-Karabakh Region is a disputed territory between:

(a) Armenia and Azerbaijan
(b) Azerbaijan and Kazakhstan
(c) Turkmenistan and Armenia
(d) Kazakhstan and Armenia

Q55. The term “Porcupine Doctrine” is related to:

(a) Taiwan       (b) Malaysia
(c) Mongolia   (d) Japan

Q56. Which of the following countries is not a part of the MIST Corridor?

(a) India               (b) Thailand
(c) Myanmar       (d) Indonesia

Q57. Villingli, Gulhifalhu, and Thilafushi are often in the news.

Which of the following is correct about them?

(a) Hills of Central Africa
(b) Tribes of Papua New Guinea
(c) Grassland of Argentina
(d) Islands of Maldives

Q58. Consider the following statements:

1. Starred questions are answered through written replies which are placed on the Table of the House.
2. Unstarred questions are answered orally on the floor of the House.
3. Short notice questions are regarding matters of public importance.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only         (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only        (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q59. Which of the following States is not included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) Tripura            (b) Mizoram
(c) Manipur          (d) Assam

Q60. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Predatory pricing is the illegal business practice of setting prices for a product unrealistically low to eliminate the competition.
2. Predatory pricing doe

(a) 1 only                 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2     (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q61. With reference to the election of Vice- President of India,
which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. The Electoral College consists of members of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.
2. The nominated members of the Rajya Sabha do not participate in the election.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only                (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q62. In India, which of the following released the Report on Municipal Finances?

(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) State Government
(d) NITI Aayog

Q63. With reference to the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB),
consider the following statements:

1. It has been constituted by the Central Government for appointment of whole- time directors and non-executive chairperson in Public Sector Banks and financial institutions.
2. It has replaced the Bank Board Bureau (BBB).

Select the correct answer using the codes given below –

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q64. Consider the following statements about Consumer Price Index (CPI):

1. The CPI-based inflation data is compiled by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade and the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
2. CPI is dominated by the prices of manufactured goods.
3. CPI takes into account the change in the prices of services.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only

Q65. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Digital Banking Units (DBU)?

(a) These will be established by the Scheduled Commercial Banks.
(b) The services include fixed deposits and recurring deposit accounts for customers.
(c) It is a specialized fixed point business unit housing a certain minimum digital infrastructure for delivering digital banking products and services.
(d) It includes banking activities through cheques, pay-in slips, and demand drafts.

Q66. Kanthalloor Vattavada Veluthulli got a GI tag.

It is a variety of garlic which is associated with:

(a) Karnataka (b) Andaman and Nicobar
(c) Kerala (d) Telangana

Q67. Which of the following countries does not border Italy?

(a) Slovenia (b) Austria
(c) France (d) Croatia

Q68. With reference to the Hoysaleshwar temple, consider the following statements:

1. The Hoysaleshwara temple at Halebidu was built in the 13th century during the reign of the Hoysala King, Vira Narasimha II.
2. The temple follows Vaishnavism tradition.
3. The sculptures inside the temple depict scenes from the Ramayana, the Mahabharata, and the Bhagavata Purana.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q69. With reference to the Monuments of National Importance, consider the following statements:

1. These monuments are protected under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, of 1958.
2. These monuments do not include temples and mosques.
3. The term ‘national importance’ has been defined in the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q70. Thullal is a recite-and-dance art form famous for its humor and social satire. It belongs to:

(a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala

Q71. Which of the following dance form is not recognized as the classical dance of India?

(a) Bharatnatyam (b) Sattriya
(c) Yakshagana (d) Kuchipudi

Q72. Lyuva Khutla, Pawl Kut, and Khuado Kut are the harvest festivals of which of the following states?

(a) Mizoram (b) Tripura
(c) Assam (d) Sikkim

Q73. Banni grasslands are located in:

(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra (d) Haryana

Q74. Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife Sanctuary State

1. Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary – Maharashtra
2. Gandhisagar Wildlife Sanctuary – Gujarat
3. Satkosia Wildlife Sanctuary – West Bengal
4. Barda Wildlife Sanctuary – Rajasthan

How many pair(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) One pair only (b) Two pairs only
(c) Three pairs only (d) All four pairs

Q75. Consider the following statements:

1. LIBOR stands for London Interbank Offered Rate.
2. LIBOR will be phased out and will be replaced by the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR).

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q76. Which of the following countries does not border Greece?

(a) Albania (b) Bulgaria
(c) Macedonia (d) Croatia

Q77. Which of the following does not border El Salvador?

(a) Atlantic Ocean (b) Guatemala
(c) Honduras (d) Pacific Ocean

Q78. Consider the following statements:

1. The Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) was launched in November 2013.
2. FIPIC includes 14 of the island countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q79. Consider the following statements:

1. In appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme Court has exclusive power to adjudicate upon disputes involving elections of the President and the Vice President.
2. In advisory jurisdiction, the President has the power to seek an opinion from the apex court under Article 143 of the Constitution
3. In original jurisdiction, the Supreme Court hears appeals from lower courts.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Q80. Consider the following pairs:

Articles Provisions

1. Article – Elections to the 243-J Panchayats
2. Article 243 – K – Audit of accounts of Panchayats
3. Article 243-I – Constitution of Finance Commission to review the financial position
4. Article 243-G – Powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats

How many pair(s) given above are/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pair
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs

Q81. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Governor of an Indian State?

(a) State Governor shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
(b) The qualification and condition of the office are mentioned in the constitution.
(c) Governor shall hold office for a fixed period of five years.
(d) There is no impeachment process for removing the Governor.

Q82. Consider the following statements about National Coal Index (NCI):

1. It is a price index combining the prices of coal from all the sales channels- Notified Prices, Auction Prices and Import Prices.
2. It is released annually.
3. Wholesale Price Index does not have a component of imported coal was the main reason for the introduction of NCI.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below –

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q83. With reference to the Millets, consider the following statements:

1. They are highly adaptive to a wide range of ecological conditions and thrive well in rain-fed; arid climates and they have minimal requirements of water, fertilizers, and pesticides.
2. They are gluten-free and have a low glycaemic index but lack protein.
3. The United Nations has declared 2022 as the International Year of Millets.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q84. This crop is sown during the early winters in Northern India. The longer the crop is in the field, the more starch and proteins the grains will accumulate, and the higher the yields. The optimum temperature range for idea germination of its seed is 20-25 degree Celsius though the seeds can germinate in the temperature range of 3.5 to 35 degrees Celsius.

The above description refers to which of the following crops?

(a) Mustard (b) Sunflower
(c) Paddy (d) Wheat

Q85. Consider the following statements about AT1 bonds:

1. These are the secured bonds that are issued by banks.
2. They have no maturity date.
3. These bonds are used by the banks to bolster their tier-1 capital.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q86. Which of the following does not border Guyana?

(a) Suriname (b) Brazil
(c) Atlantic Ocean (d) Columbia

Q87. Consider the following statements:

1. Torres Strait separates Papua New Guinea and Australia.
2. The Bismarck Archipelago is a part of the Islands Region of Papua New Guinea.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below –

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q88. With reference to the Arab League, consider the following statements:

1. It was established in 1945 with initially just six nations- Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria.
2. Recently, it reinstated the membership of Iraq after more than a decade of suspension.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q89. ‘Title 42’ is related to which of the following countries?

(a) Brazil (b) US
(c) Canada (d) England

Q90. Consider the following statements:

1. Rio Negro is a principal river of Venezuela.
2. Uruguay is bordered by Brazil and Argentina and lies along the Atlantic Ocean.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q91. Which of the following is not a dimension for calculating the score of the Global Hunger Index?

(a) Undernourishment (b) Child Wasting
(c) Birth Rate (d) Child Stunting

Q92. Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to Chola Empire?

(a) The empire emerged during the mid-9th century under King Rajaraja I.
(b) They were the first empire with grand commercial and territorial ambitions outside the Indian subcontinent.
(c) The maritime outreach was used for trade.
(d) The expansion of the Chola empire led to the establishment of new capital at Gangaikondacholapuram, built to commemorate the victory over the Pala dynasty.

Q93. Who started Amitya Sabha to nurture philosophical discussions on monotheism in Vedanta and to campaign against idolatry, casteism, child marriage, and other social ills?

(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Anne Besant
(d) B.R Ambedkar

Q94. Consider the following statements:

1. The International Booker Prize is awarded annually for the finest single work of fiction from around the world which has been translated into English and published
in the UK and Ireland.
2. Bulgarian writer Georgi Gospodinov and translator Angela Rodel won the International Booker Prize for 2023.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q95. Ima Keithel – meaning “mother’s market” is said to be the largest women’s market in the world.

It is in which of the following states?

(a) Mizoram (b) Manipur
(c) Tripura (d) Nagaland

Q96. Charaideo Maidams are best described as:

(a) Grasslands of Tripura
(b) Royal burial sites of the Assam
(c) Hill rocks of Ladakh
(d) Wetland in Maharashtra

Q97. Which of the following statements is not correct about Unnakoti Heritage Site?

(a) It is situated in the State of Tripura.
(b) It is also known as Angkor Wat of the North-East.
(c) It is a Saivite pilgrimage site.
(d) All the images found at Unakoti are rock-carved figures.

Q98. Which of the following States/U.T. has got the Geographical Indication (GI) tag for Basholi Paintings?

(a) Ladakh (b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Jammu and Kashmir

Q99. Consider the following statements about Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR):

1. It has been developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
2. The SFDR-based propulsion enables the missile to intercept aerial threats at short range at ultrasonic speeds.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q100. Consider the following statements with respect to BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile:

1. It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine as its first stage and a liquid ramjet as the second stage.
2. It operates on ‘Command Guidance’.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• Pulakeshin II was the prominent king of Chalukyas of Badami.
• Pulakeshin II was the contemporary of Harshvardhana.

2. Ans. (c)

3. Ans. (d)

4. Ans. (c)

5. Ans. (a)

6. Ans. (a)

7. Ans. (c)

8. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• Ding Liren of China has been crowned king of World Chess.

9. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• The Meitei people are the predominant ethnic group of Manipur.

10. Ans. (d)

Location Country
1 Pavlohrad Ukraine
2 Bryansk Region Russia

11. Ans. (a)

12. Ans. (a)

13. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• PMI or a Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) is an indicator of business activity — both in the manufacturing and services sectors.
• It is a survey-based measure that asks the respondents about changes in their perception of some key business variables from the month before.
• It is calculated separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index is constructed

14. Ans. (b)

15. Ans. (d)

16. Ans. (c)

17. Ans. (a)

18. Ans. (c)

19. Ans. (c)

20. Ans. (a)

21. Ans. (d)

22. Ans. (a)

23. Ans. (b)

24. Ans. (c)

25. Ans. (c)

26. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• The origins of the Arab League go back to the Second World War.

27. Ans. (a)

28. Ans. (c)

29. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• Operation Ganga was the initiative launched by the government of India to bring back Indians stranded in Ukraine.

30. Ans. (c)

31. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• The Bab el-Mandeb Strait is a sea route chokepoint between the Horn of Africa and the Middle East,connecting the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden.
• The Bab el-Mandeb Strait is 18 miles wide at its narrowest point, limiting tanker traffic to two 2-mile-wide channels for inbound and outbound shipments.

 

32. Ans. (d)

33. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

“Kardhai”, “Khair” and “Salai” are the names of trees in Kuno National Park.

34. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• Kyrgyzstan reported clashes in its southern Batken province which borders Tajikistan’s northern Sughd region and features a Tajik exclave, Vorukh, a key hotspot in recent conflicts.
• The Batken region is located in Kyrgyzstan. There has been constant shelling and violent confrontations by local communities on either side.

35. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

Article 371 C of the Indian Constitution deals with the Special provision with respect to the State of Manipur.

36. Ans. (c)

37. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSD(C) was constituted by an Executive Order of the Union Government as a non-statutory apex body under the Ministry of Finance in 2010.
• The Raghuram Rajan Committee (2008) on financial sector reforms first proposed the creation of FSDC.

 

38. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• A penumbral lunar eclipse takes place when the Moon moves through the faint, outer part of Earth’s shadow,the penumbra.
• This type of eclipse is not as dramatic as other types of lunar eclipses and is often mistaken for a regular Full Moon.

39. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• Nagara style of temple architecture that became popular in northern India is known as Nagara. In North India it is common for an entire temple to be built on a India it is common for an entire temple to be built on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.
• India it is common for an entire temple to be built on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.
• Another unique characteristic is that it does not usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways.
• The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.
• There are many subdivisions of Nagara temples depending on the shape of the shikhara.
• Amalaka or Kalash which is installed on Shikhara is another characteristic feature of this form of temple style Kandariya Mahadev Temple in Madhya Pradesh is an example for Nagara style of temple architecture Other examples of Nagara style of temples in India are- Sun temple, Konark, Sun temple at Modhera,Gujarat and Ossian temple, Gujarat.

40. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• Kaliningrad, oblast (region) is extreme western Russia.
  Most of the oblast is in the basin of the Pregolya River and its tributaries. Centred on Kaliningrad city, it was formed in 1945 from the northern half of German East
• Prussia, which was ceded to the U.S.S.R. by the Potsdam agreement of that year.

 

41. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• Niger in Sahel region has the world’s highest fertility rate.

42. Ans. (b)

43. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• The Land Ports Authority of India or LPAI is a statutory body (created through the Land Ports Authority of India Act, 2010) working under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India is responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing border infrastructure in India.
• It manages several Integrated Check Posts (ICPs) across Borders of India.

44. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• Srivilliputhur-Megamalai Tiger Reserve is India’s 51st tiger reserve and 5th tiger reserve of Tamil Nadu.
•  It was formed by combining Grizzled Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary and Megamalai Wildlife Sanctuary.

45. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• The Cham Dance is a vibrant masked and costumed ritual with roots in Buddhism.
• Associated with the Tibetan Buddhism it is a religious tradition performed by monks.
• The ritual is performed for the greater good of humanity, destruction of bad spirits and for moral
  instruction to viewers.
• The dance ritual of Cham is till date practiced in Himalayas, especially in places where Tibetan Buddhism prospered in India- Ladakh, Dharamshala,Lahaul Valley, Spiti Valley & Sikkim, and Bhutan and Tibet.
• The dance is the highlight of Buddhist festivals and special events of the monasteries.

46. Ans. (c)

47. Ans. (a)

48. Ans. (d)

49. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• Bakhmut is a city in eastern Ukraine. It serves as the administrative center of Bakhmut Raion in Donetsk Oblast.

50. Ans. (c)

51. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• Millets are anti acidic
• Millets are gluten free
• Millets detoxify body
• Niacin (vitamin B3) in millet can help lower
  cholesterol
• Prevents breast cancer
• Helps to prevent type 2 diabetes
• Effective in reducing blood pressure
• Helps to protect against heart diseases
• Aids in treating respiratory conditions such as asthma
• Helps to optimize kidney, liver and immune system
  health
• Reduces risk of gastrointestinal conditions like gastric
  ulcers or colon cancer
• Eliminates problems like constipation, excess gas,
  bloating and cramping
• Millet acts as a prebiotic feeding microflora in your inner ecosystem.

52. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• Mitochondria are often referred to as the powerhouses of the cell. They help turn the energy we take from food into energy that the cell can use.

53. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• It is a format of meeting of the foreign and defence ministers of India and its allies on strategic and security issues.
• 2+2 ministerial dialogue enables the partners to better understand and appreciate each other’s strategic concerns and sensitivities considering political factors on both sides, in order to build a stronger, more integrated strategic relationship in a rapidly changing global environment.
• India has 2+2 dialogues with four key strategic partners: the US, Australia, Japan, and Russia. Besides Russia, the other three countries are also India’s partners in the Quad. The US is India’s oldest and most important 2+2 talks partner.

54. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• Nagorno-Karabakh is a mountainous and heavily forested region that under international law is recognised as part of Azerbaijan.recognised as part of Azerbaijan.
• It is a disputed territory between Armenia and Azerbaijan.
• Ethnic Armenians constitute the vast majority of the population and these ethnic Armenians have been in administrative control of Nagorno-Karabakh, with support from Armenia.

55. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• The “porcupine doctrine” is a strategy of asymmetric warfare focused on fortifying state’s defences to exploit the enemy’s weaknesses rather than taking on its strengths.
• Taiwan has initiated the Porcupine strategy and the objective of this doctrine is that of surviving and assimilating an aerial offence to organise a wall of fire that will prevent the Chinese People’s Liberation Army (PL(A) from successfully invading.
• It consists of three different defensive layers, the outer layer is about intelligence and reconnaissance to ensure defence forces are fully prepared, guerrilla warfare at sea with aerial support from sophisticated aircraft provided by the US, the innermost layer relies on the geography and demography of the island.

56. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• The Myanmar/Malaysia India Singapore Transit (MIST) cable system has a total length of 8,100km, connecting Singapore, Malaysia, Myanmar, Thailand,India.
• The MIST cable system consists of 12 fibre pairs, with more than 216 Tbsp system capacity.
• MIST will further enhance and contribute to the much-needed expansion of communications networks from Asia, thereby improving network redundancy, ensuring highly reliable communications, and expanding onward connectivity options in the Bay of Bengal.

57. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• India and Maldives signed a contract on the mega Greater Male Connectivity project (GMCP), the largest infrastructure project in the country.
• The project involves the construction of a 6.74 km long bridge and causeway link connecting the capital Male with the adjoining islands of Villingli, Gulhifalhu and Thilafushi.

58. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• Starred Questions These are answered orally on the floor of the House and with reference to the reply given; members are entitled to ask supplementary questions.
• Unstarred Questions These call for written replies which are placed on the Table of the House and no supplementary are asked in respect of such replies.
• Short Notice Questions These may be put only regarding matters of the public importance of an urgent character at shorter notice than provided for in the Rules of the two Houses and are answered orally as starred questions.
• The Rajya Sabha/Lok Sabha Secretariat gives at least  five days’ notice to the Minister concerned to answer a question.

59. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• The Sixth Schedule under Article 244 provides for the formation of autonomous administrative divisions —Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) — that have some legislative, judicial, and administrative autonomy
  within a state.
• ADCs have up to 30 members with a term of five years and can make laws, rules, and regulations regardingland, forest, water, agriculture, village councils, health,sanitation, village and town-level policing, inheritance,marriage and divorce, social customs and mining, etc.
• The Bodoland Territorial Council in Assam is an exception with more than 40 members and the right to make laws on 39 issues.
• The Sixth Schedule applies to the Northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram (three Councils each),and Tripura (one Council).

60. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• Predatory pricing is the illegal business practice of setting prices for a product unrealistically low to eliminate the competition.
• Predatory pricing violates antitrust laws, as its goal is to create a monopoly. However, the practice can be difficult to prosecute. Defendants may argue that lowering prices is a normal business practice in a competitive market rather than a deliberate attempt to undermine the marketplace.
• Predatory pricing doesn’t always work since the predator is losing revenue as well as the competition.The point, new competitors will emerge.

61. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• Article 66 lays down the process of the election of the Vice-President.
• It says the Vice-President “shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot”.
• For the 16th Vice-Presidential Election, 2022, the Electoral College consists of 233 elected members of the Rajya Sabha, 12 nominated members of the Rajya Sabha, and 543 elected members of Lok Sabha, adding up to 788 members. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• In the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, the elector must mark preferences against the names of the candidates.

62. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• RBI released the Report on Municipal Finances in which it has highlighted several lacunae in the working of municipal corporations, stating that there has been no appreciable improvement in their functioning despite institutionalisation of the structure of local governance in India.

63. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• It has been constituted by the Central Government for appointment as whole-time directors (WTDs) and non-executive chairpersons (NECs) on the Boards of Directors in Public Sector Banks, financial institutions,and Public Sector Insurers.
• Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (AC(C) has approved a government resolution for establishing theFinancial Services Institutions Bureau (FSI(B) in place of the Banks Board Bureau (BB(B).

64. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• The two most-often used inflation rates in the country are the wholesale price index (WPI) and the consumer price index (CPI) based on inflation rate.
• The CPI-based inflation data is compiled by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation while the WPI-based inflation data is put together by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade and Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• The WPI is dominated by the prices of manufactured goods while the CPI is dominated by the prices of food articles.
• The WPI does not take into account the change in prices of services, but CPI does.
• If services such as transport, education, recreation and amusement get costlier, then retail inflation will rise but there will be no impact on wholesale price inflation.

65. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• 75 digital banking units will be set up in 75 districts this year. This is to take forward the government’s agenda of digital financial inclusion.
• Commercial banks (other than regional rural banks, payment banks, and local area banks) with past digital banking experience are permitted to open DBUs in tier 1 to tier 6 centres.
• The services include savings bank accounts under various schemes, current accounts, fixed deposits and recurring deposit accounts, digital kit for customers, mobile banking, Internet banking, debit cards, credit cards, and mass transit system cards, digital kit for merchants, UPI QR code, BHIM Aadhaar and point of sale (PoS).
• Other services include making applications for and onboarding customers for identified retail, MSME, or schematic loans.
• Digital banking involves taking all traditional banking activity online — doing away with paperwork like cheques, pay-in slips, demand drafts, etc.

66. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• Kanthalloor is a rain-shadow village on the Eastern slopes of the Western Ghats, lying nearly 40 km away from Munnar, Kerala.
• Kanthalloor Vattavada garlic is known for its pungency and medicinal properties. It has allicin content which gives garlic its unique pungency and flavour.

67. Ans. (d)

68. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• The Ministry of Culture had nominated the Hoysala Temples of Belur, Halebid, and Somnathapura in Karnataka for the World Heritage List.
• The Hoysaleshwara temple at Halebidu is the most exemplary architectural ensemble of the Hoysalas extant today. It was built in 1121 CE during the reign of the Hoysala King, Vishnuvardhana Hoysaleshwara.
• The Hoysaleswara temple follows the Shaivism tradition but includes themes from Vaishnavism and Shaktism, along with Jainism images.
• The sculptures inside the temple depict scenes from the Ramayana, the Mahabharata, and the Bhagavata Purana.
• Along with this temple, the nearby Kesava temple in Belur has also been proposed to be listed under UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

69. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• Article 51A of the Constitution stipulates that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India “to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.”
• In accordance with these constitutional provisions, the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 (AMASR Act, 1958) was enacted to preserve the historical and archaeological wealth of the country.
• This Act provides for the preservation of ancient and historical monuments and archaeological sites and remains which have been declared to be of ‘national importance’ under the law. It was amended once in 2010.
• As of August 2022, India had 3695 Monuments of National Importance (MNI) under the AMASR Act, 1958. The list includes temples, churches, mosques, stupas, forts, caves, palaces, colonial monuments/sites, water systems (tanks and baolis), pre-historic sites, archaeological sites, and archaeological remains among others.

70. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• Thullal performances have shaped the length and breadth of Kerala’s landscape.
• The dance is witnessed at temple festivals and cultural programmes, these performances use elaborate expressions and stories recited in verses to bring important mythological tales and stories to life.
• It was introduced in the 18th century by legendary poet Kunchan Nambiar, it is epitomized by humour, satire and social criticism.
• The costume and makeup of the performer are similar to that of a Kathakali artist. The Thullal performer issupported by a singer who repeats the verses and is accompanied by an orchestra of mridangam or thoppimaddalam (percussions) and cymbals.
• It has spawned into three separate versions which include- Ottanthullal, Seethankan thullal and Parayan thullal. — Each has become a strong platform for reform and social consciousness in our community over the course of the last few centuries.

71. Ans. (c)

72. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• Kut are the traditional festivals of Mizoram. Some of those important ones celebrated with great pomp and
  show are namely:
• Chapchar Kut is one of the most important spring festivals. After the clearing of the forests for jhum cultivation, this festival is celebrated with great fervor by the people of Mizoram.
• Mim Kut is celebrated after the harvest of the maize crop is over. For this very reason, Mim Kut is also called the Maize Festival.
• Pawl Kut is the greatest of all the festivals celebrated in the state of Mizoram. Once all the harvests are over, this Harvest Festival is celebrated with great fun.
• Lyuva Khutla (festival) is celebrated after completion of arduous jhumming task (slash and burn). It is celebrated as thanksgiving to the almighty for his helps and blessings.
• The Anthurium Festival is held to promote farmers, flowers, and horticulture in Mizoram.
• Khuado Kut (festival) is celebrated by the Paite community. It is a festival of symbolic expression of thanksgiving to the Almighty for having blessed and thanksgiving to the Almighty for having blessed and given a bountiful harvest.
• The Hlukhla Kut is a festival of Lai people. It is celebrated during March after completion of their most arduous task of jhum operation i.e., jungle-clearing (clearing of the remnants of burning).

73. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• The Banni grasslands of Gujarat constitute about 4.33 per cent (8,490 sq km) of the total geographical area, distributed in eight districts and three different climatic regions, Kutch, Saurashtra and central Gujarat.
• A majority of grasslands in Gujarat (41 per cent) are found in the Kutch district. Banni grassland was declared a Protected Forest in 1955, under the Indian Forest Act, 1927
• Banni is also home to the Indian wolf, jackal, Indian fox, desert fox, desert cat, caracal, hyena, chinkara, Nilgai, wild boar, Indian hare, common monitor lizard, and the cheetah before it became extinct.

74. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• Wildlife Sanctuary State
• Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary Maharashtra
• Gandhisagar Wildlife Sanctuary Madhya Pradesh
• Satkosia Wildlife Sanctuary Odisha
• Barda Wildlife Sanctuary Gujarat

75. Ans. (c)

76. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• 4 countries that border Greece are Albania, Bulgaria,Macedonia, and Turkey.

77. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• El Salvador is the smallest country in Central America. This mountainous country is bordered by the Pacific Ocean, Guatemala, and Honduras.

78. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• The Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPI(C) was launched during Prime Minister, Mr.Narendra Modi’s visit to Fiji in November 2014.
• FIPIC includes 14 of the island countries – Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu.
• Though these countries are relatively small in land area and distant from India, many have large exclusive
  economic zones (EEZs), and offer promising possibilities for fruitful cooperation.

79. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• The Supreme Court has three kinds of jurisdictions: original, appellate, and advisory.
• In advisory jurisdiction, the President has the power to seek an opinion from the apex court under Article 143 of the Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In appellate jurisdiction, the Supreme Court hears appeals from lower courts. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• In its extraordinary original jurisdiction, the Supreme Court has exclusive power to adjudicate upon disputes involving elections of the President and the Vice President, those that involve states and the Centre, and cases involving the violation of fundamental rights. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

80. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

Articles Provisions:

Article 243-J

Audit of accounts of Panchayats: The Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions with respect to
the maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts.
Article 243- k
Elections to the Panchayats:
(1) The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.

(2) Subject to the provisions of any law made by the Legislature of a State, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the State Election Commissioner shall be such as the Governor may by rule determine: Provided that the State Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court and the conditions of service of the State Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.

(3) The Governor of a State shall, when so requested by the State Election Commission, make available to the State Election Commission such staff as may be necessary for the discharge of the functions conferred on the State Election Commission by clause (1).

(4) Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to all matters relating to, or in connection with, elections to the Panchayats
Article 243-I
Constitution of Finance Commission to reviewfinancial position:
(1) The Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations to the Governor as to:
(a) the principles which should govern-
(i) the distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees leviable by the State, which may be divided between them under this Part and the allocation between the Panchayats at all levels of their respective shares of such proceeds;
(ii) the determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned to, or appropriated by the Panchayat;
(iii) the grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State;
(b) the measures needed to improve the financial position of the Panchayats;
(c) any other matter referred to the Finance Commission by the Governor in the interests of sound finance of the Panchayats.
(2) The Legislature of a State may, by law, provide for the composition of the commission, the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members thereof and the manner in which they shall be selected.
(3) The Commission shall determine their procedure and shall have such powers in the performance of their
functions as the Legislature of the State may, by law, confer on them.
(4) The Governor shall cause every recommendation made by the Commission under this article together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be laid before the Legislature of the State.
Article 243-G
Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats: Subject to the provisions of this Constitution, the Legislature of a State may, by law, endow the Panchayats with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government and such law may contain provisions for the devolution of powers and responsibilities upon Panchayats at the appropriate level, subject to such conditions as may be specified therein, with respect to-
(a) the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice;
(b) the implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice as may be entrusted to them including those in relation to the matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule.
81. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• Article 155 says that the “Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal”.
• Under Article 156, “the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President”, but his normal
  term of office will be five years.
• If the President withdraws her pleasure before the completion of five years, the Governor must step down.

82. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• National Coal Index is a price index combining the prices of coal from all the sales channels- Notified Prices, Auction Prices, and Import Prices. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This index was created to provide a benchmark for revenue-sharing contracts being executed after the auctions for commercial mining of coal The index is released every month by the Ministry of Coal, Government of India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The NCI was introduced as the wholesale price index (WPI) for coal has no component of imported coal. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

83. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• Millets are a group of nutritiously rich, drought tolerant and mostly grown in the arid and semi-arid regions of India.
• They are highly adaptive to a wide range of ecological conditions and thrive well in rain-fed; arid climates and they have minimal requirement of water, fertilisers, and pesticides. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The United Nations has declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• The millets are also known as “coarse cereals” or“cereals of the poor”. Indian Millets are nutritionally superior to wheat and rice as they are rich in protein, vitamins, and minerals. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• They are also gluten-free and have a low glycemic index, making them ideal for people with celiac disease or diabetes.

84. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• Wheat is grown in a variety of soils of India. Soils with a clay loam or loam texture, good structure and moderate water holding capacity are ideal for wheat cultivation.
• Wheat is sown in Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan during the first half of November and in Uttar Pradesh by the end of November.
• The optimum temperature range for ideal germination of wheat seed is 20-25 C though the seeds can
  germinate in the temperature range 3.5 to 35 c.
• The longer the crop is in the field now, the more starch and proteins the grains will accumulate, and higher the yields.
• The crop is ready for harvest once the grains have ripened, and moisture levels are reduced to 12-13% by rising temperatures.

85. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• AT1 bonds are unsecured bonds that have perpetual tenors. In other words, these bonds, issued by banks, have no maturity date.
• They have a call option, which can be used by the banks to buy these bonds back from investors. These bonds are typically used by banks to bolster their core or tier-1 capital.
• AT1 bonds are subordinate to all other debt and only senior to common equity. Mutual funds (MFs) were among the largest investors in perpetual debt instruments.

86. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• Guyana is in the north-east of South America. It borders the North Atlantic Ocean. Its neighbours are Suriname, to the east, Brazil, to the south and south- west, and Venezuela, to the west.

87. Ans. (c)

88. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• The Arab League, formally known as the League of Arab States, was established in 1945 with initially just six nations: Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria. Currently, it has 22 member states, who have pledged to cooperate on economic and military affairs, among other issues. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Arab League voted to reinstate Syria’s membership (not Iraq)after its suspension more than 10 years ago, underlining the thawing relations between Damascus and other Arab countries.

89. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• The COVID restrictions, known as Title 42, were first implemented under Republican then-President Donald Trump in March 2020 at the beginning of the pandemic. At the time, the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) said the order was needed to stem the spread of the coronavirus in crowded detention settings.
• Title 42 allowed border agents to rapidly expel many migrants to Mexico, but some public health experts,Democrats and advocates criticized its health justification, saying it was part of Trump’s goal of curbing legal and illegal immigration.

90. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• Rio Negro is a principal river of Uruguay.

91. Ans. (c)

Explanation:

• The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool that is designed to comprehensively measure and track hunger at global, regional, and national levels, reflecting multiple dimensions of hunger over time.
• The GHI score is calculated based on a formula that combines four indicators that together capture the multidimensional nature of hunger:
• Undernourishment: The share of the population with insufficient caloric intake.
  Child stunting: The share of children under age five who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition.
• Child wasting: The share of children under age five who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition Child mortality: The share of children who die before their fifth birthday, partly reflecting the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments.

92. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• The Cholas date as far back as the third century BCE, and very little evidence exists about the early Cholas, apart from the early Tamil literature of the third Sangam, and the references made about them in an ancient Graeco-Roman periplus written in the early centuries of the Common Era.
• The Chola Empire emerged in the mid-ninth century under King Vijayalaya Chola.

93. Ans. (a)

Explanation:

• Ram Mohan Roy grew up within the framework of orthodox caste practices of his time such as child marriage, polygamy, and dowry. He knew a lot of languages like Bengali, Persian, Arabic, Sanskrit, and English.
• In 1814, he started the Atmiya Sabha to nurture philosophical discussions on monotheism in Vedanta and to campaign against idolatry, casteism, child marriage and other social ills.
• He campaigned for the modernisation of education, in particular the introduction of a Western curriculum,
  and started several educational institutions in the city. In 1817, he collaborated with Scottish philanthropist
  David Hare to set up the Hindu College (now, Presidency University).
• He followed it up with the Anglo-Hindu School in 1822 and, in 1830, assisted Alexander Duff to set up the General Assembly’s Institution, which later became the Scottish Church College.
• He advocated alongside Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar which finally led to the abolition of Sati under the governor generalship of William Bentinck in 1829.

94. Ans. (c)

95. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• Ima Keithel – meaning “mother’s market” in the local Meitei language – in Imphal, the capital of Manipur, is said to be the largest women-only market in the world.

96. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• The Charaideo moidams are royal burial sites of the Ahom dynasty, which ruled over much of Assam and the North East from 1228 to 1826 AD.
• It is located around 30 km from Sivasagar town in eastern Assam, even today, the tumuli in Charaideo are considered sacrosanct by many locals.

97. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• This place dates back to the 7th-9th centuries, Unakoti is a ‘Shaiba’ (Saivite) pilgrimage site with marvelous rock carvings, murals with their primitive beauty, and waterfalls.
• Unakoti means ‘one less one crore’ in Hindi and Bengali and it is believed that these many rock carvings (ninety-nine lakh ninety-nine thousand nine hundred and ninety-nine) are present here.
• In the local Kokborok language, it is called Subrai Khung and is the central tourist spot of the Unakoti District in the Kailashahar Subdivision of Tripura.
• The images found at Unakoti are of two types – rock- carved figures and stone images.
• The central Shiva head is known as ‘Unakotiswara Kal Bhairava’ and is about 30 feet high including an embroidered head-dress which itself is 10 feet high.
• On each side of the head-dress of the central Shiva, there are two full-size female figures – one of Durga standing on a lion, and another female figure on the other. In addition, three enormous images of Nandi Bull are found half buried in the ground.

98. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• The famous Basohli Painting from the Kathua district of Jammu division has received the Geographical
  Indication (GI) Tag.
• The Pahari School of Art developed in the mountainous regions of Basohli, Kulu, Guler, Kangra, Jammu, and Garhwal between the 17th and 19th centuries.
• The first centre of the Pahari school materialized at Basohli with its own bold and flamboyant style. The style is toned down in the Guler paintings with its finer drawings and calmer colours.
• Subsequently, the paintings from Jammu portrayed more clarity and simplicity of individualisation and ultimately transformed into rhythmic, graceful paintings from Kangra.
• Basohli, nevertheless, gave birth to the Pahari style and paved the way for other centres to flourish.

99. Ans. (d)

Explanation:

• India has successfully tested Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR) booster, a missile system, at the Integrated Test Range (ITR) in Chandipur off the Odisha coast.
• The SFDR-based propulsion enables the missile to intercept aerial threats at very long range at supersonic
  speeds. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• There are various measures to track the performance like telemetry, radar, and electro optical tracking systems.
• The SFDR has been developed by Defence Research and Development Laboratory, Hyderabad collaboration with other DRDO laboratories such as Research Centre, Hyderabad and High Energy Materials Research Laboratory, Pune. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

100. Ans. (b)

Explanation:

• BrahMos is a two-stage missile with a solid propellent booster engine as first stage which helps in attaining supersonic speed and then it gets separated. The second stage consists of liquid ramjet which takes the missile closer to the speed of 3 Mach.
• The missile has flight range up to 290-km with supersonic speed throughout the flight which results in lower dispersion pof targets, quick time engagement and non-interception by any other weapon. It carries a conventional warhead of about 200-300 kgs.
• It operates on the ‘Fire and Forget Principle’. Its destructive power is enhanced due to large kinetic energy on impact. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court Judge may be appointed as an ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign trade of India.

1. India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
2. India’s service exports are more than its service imports.
3. Business service constitutes the majority of service exports from India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only         (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Banking Sector in India:

1. Banks in India are regulated by the Finance Minister.
2. SBI was privatized during the prime ministership of Smt. Indira Gandhi.
3. Reserve Bank of India was set up under RBI Act 1934.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 3        (b) Only 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3   (d) None

Q4.  Focusing Resources on Effective School

Health (FRESH), an inter-agency framework, is developed by:

1. UNESCO 2. UNICEF
2. WHO 4. World Bank
3. OECD

Choose the correct answer using the code given below:

• 2 and 3 only
• 2, 3 and 4 only
• 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
• 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding G20:

1. India’s G20 Presidency theme is “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” or “One Earth, One Family, One Future”.
2. During India’s G20 Presidency, the troika will comprise Indonesia, India, and Brazil, respectively.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF).

1. Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) includes 4 goals and 23 targets for achievement by 2030.
2. It was adopted at COP 15 of CBD which was held at Montreal’s Palais des Congrès Dec 7-19.
3. It is a legally binding framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only         (d) 1 and 2 only

Q7.  Consider the following statements regarding

Border Surveillance System (BOSS):

1. It is an all-weather electronic surveillance system for detecting intrusions in harsh high altitude areas.
2. It has been deployed in the Yangtse (Tawang) border area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q8. Consider the following statements with respect to Strategic Petroleum Reserve:

1. It is maintained under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
2. Presently an emergency fuel store of a total 5.33 MMT is maintained, enough to provide 15 days of consumption.

Which of the above statement/s is/ are correct?

(a) 1 Only        (b) 2 Only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) None of the above

Q9.      Consider the following statements:

1. A free trade agreement is an agreement in which two or more countries agree to provide preferential trade terms, tariff concession, etc. to the partner country.
2. A positive list is maintained i.e. the list of the products to which the two partners have agreed to provide preferential access.
3. A negative list of products and services is also maintained by the negotiating countries on which the terms of FTA are not applicable.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only           (d) All of the above

Q10.  Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.

1. The National Commission for Scheduled, Tribes is a constitutional body.

2. Recommendations of the NCST are binding on the government.
3. The Commission and its officers participate in the formulation of policies and in the developmental programs for Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only           (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only         (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q11.  Consider the following statements regarding the India-China border dispute-

1. The boundary line at the LAC is called the McMahon Line in the eastern sector.
2. The McMahon line was proposed under the Simla Accord in 1914.
3. During the Sino-Indian war of 1962, Tawang fell under Chinese control but India gained it back with the help of Russia.

Choose the CORRECT answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only         (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only           (d) 1, 2, and 3 only

Q12.  With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?

1. Detecting human emotions using body movement.
2. Speed up the vaccine development process.
3. Address the challenges posed by climate change through data analytics.
4. Weather modeling for better predictions of climate phenomena.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only       (b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only           (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q13.  Consider the following statements regarding the Satellite Communication (Satcom)

1. Satellite Communication (SatCom) uses very low frequency signals.
2. Unlike the traditional Mobile operators SatCom needs global coordination.
3. Satellite communication is possible through the Low Earth Orbital (LEO) satellites only.

 

Choose the CORRECT answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only           (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Q14.  BIND scheme, recently seen in the news, is related to:

• Broadcasting Infrastructure
• Defence Manufacturing
• Space Exploration
• 3-D printing

Q15.  Consider the following differences between banks & NBFCs:

1. NBFC cannot accept demand deposits.
2. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on itself.
3. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and      Credit   Guarantee Corporation            is       however           available          to depositors of NBFCs, like in case of banks.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only           (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only           (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q16.  With reference to INS Vikrant, consider the following statements:

1. It is the first aircraft carrier built in India. 2. The motto of the ship is “Balasya Mulam Vigyanam” which is taken from Rig Veda and is translated as “the source of strength is science”.
2. It makes India only the fifth country after the US, Russia, Britain and France to have such capabilities of developing indigenous aircraft carriers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only           (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only           (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q17.  Consider the following statements with respect to Natural farming:

1. In natural farming, external agricultural inputs such as rock phosphate, biopesticides and biofertilizers are used but not in organic farming.
2. Organic fertilizers are used in Natural farming but not in organic farming.
3. Plowing, tilting, mixing manure, weeding, and other fundamental agro activities are required in natural farming but not in organic farming.

Which of the above statement/s is/are NOT correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2           (b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3           (d) All of the above

Q18. Consider the following statements about International Renewable Energy Agency (IREN(A):

1. The International    Renewable       Energy Agency (IREN(A) is an intergovernmental organisation that supports countries in their transition to a sustainable energy future.
2. India is the Founding Member of IRENA.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q19.  Which of the following statements is incorrect about Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)?

• It is always fixed above the repo rate.
• It was introduced by RBI with the main aim of reducing volatility in the overnight lending rates in the interbank market.
• The MSF is the last resort for banks to borrow money from the RBI.
• MSF has a lower rate of interest in comparison with the LAF.

Q20. Consider the following statement about “Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana (PMGKAY).

1. It is new integrated food security scheme for providing food grains at subsidised rate

to Antodaya Ann Yojna (AAY) & Primary Household (PHH) beneficiaries.

2. It will subsume the two subsidy schemes of Department of Food & Public Distribution (a) Food Subsidy to FCI (b) Food Subsidy for decentralized procurement states dealing with procurement, allocation and delivery of free food grains. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q21.  Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy.
2. The power of ‘judicial review’ is part of the ‘basic structure of the doctrine’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Q22.  Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Deepfakes’ and related technology

1. Deepfakes are digital media edited and manipulated using Artificial Intelligence and are used to create hyper-realistic digital falsification.
2. Deepfake techniques use a deep learning technique called autoencoder. Choose the CORRECT answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only          

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q23.  Consider the following statements with reference to Voice of the Global South Summit:

1. It was hosted by India to discuss the goals to achieve the long-term temperature goal targeted under Paris Climate Summit.
2. It was held under the theme – ‘Unity of Voice, Unity of Purpose’.
3. The ‘Global South’ broadly refers to countries in Asia, Africa, and South America, North America. Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only           (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only         (d) All of the above.

Q24.  Consider the following statements about

‘YUVAi program:

1. The National e-Governance Division, Department of Science and Technology, Government of India, in collaboration with its partners, has launched the program.
2. It is a National Program with the objective of enabling school students from classes 8th to 12th with AI tech and social skills in an inclusive manner.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q25.  Consider the following statements with reference to the advantages of Bio-

Pesticides:

1. These are usually inherently less toxic than conventional pesticides.
2. Bio-pesticide production requires a low capital investment.
3. Bio-pesticides are effective in very small quantities and often decompose quickly.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only           (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only         (d) All of the above.

Q26.  Consider the following statements about the Global Innovation Index 2022.

1. The rankings are released by the World Bank in association with IMF.
2. India rose to 40th rank among 132 countries in the Global Innovation Index 2022.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Q27.  Consider the following statements regarding Euthanasia:

1. Active Euthanasia assists suicide through an injection of lethal substances to accelerate death.
2. Passive Euthanasia is intentionally causing death by not providing essential, necessary, and ordinary care or food and water.
3. At Present, Active and Passive Euthanasia both are legal in India.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 Only           (b) 2 and 3 Only (c) 1 and 3 Only       (d) All of the above.

Q28.  Consider the following statement regarding the Tax to GDP ratio:

1. The tax-to-GDP ratio is a measure of a nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its economy.
2. Developing nations typically have higher tax-to-GDP ratios than developed nations.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q29.  With reference to E-Courts Project, consider the following statements:

1. It is being implemented since 2007 as a part of the National E-Governance Plan.
2. The main objective of the project is to leverage ICT to provide designated services to lawyers, litigants, and the judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Q30.  Consider the following statements about POCSO Act:

1. The Act does not create any distinction between the victim or the perpetrators on the basis of their gender.
2. The statement of the child is to be recorded at Police Station only and generally by a woman police officer.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q31.  Consider the following statement about Gender Inequality Index (GII)

1. The GII is a composite measure, reflecting inequality in achievements between women and men in three dimensions: reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market.
2. The GII varies between 1 (when women and men fare equally) and 0 (when men or women fare poorly compared to the other in all dimensions).

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Q32.  Consider following statements about KenBetwa river link project:

1. The linking canal will flow through Chhatarpur, Tikamgarh and Jhansi districts.
2. The link will be in the form of a canal that will be fed by the new Daudhan Dam on the Betwa river.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q33.  With reference to the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF), consider the following statements:

1. It is a methodology adopted by the Ministry of Education to rank institutions of higher education in India.
2. Participation in the NIRF is voluntary for all government-run educational institutions.
3. Indian Institute of Science (IIS(c) Bengaluru ranked first in the NIRF 2022 rankings under the research and universities category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only           (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only         (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Q34.  Consider the following statement about Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IB(C).

1. IBC 2016 is India’s bankruptcy law whose prime objective is to rescue corporate creditors in distress.
2. The Code specifies a time-bound insolvency resolution process, including any litigation, which must be completed within 330 days.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q35.  With reference to National Child Labour Project       (NCLP)           Scheme,           consider          the following statements:

1. It is a central sector scheme under the aegis of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. 2. Under this Scheme, children of every age group withdrawn from child labour activities are put into NCLP Special Training Centres before being mainstreamed into the formal education system.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Q36.  Consider the following statements with respect to Red Tide:

1. Red Tide is a phenomenon where certain phytoplankton species contain pigments and bloom such that the human eye perceives the water to be discolored.
2. Major factors influencing red tide events include Cold ocean surface temperatures, and low salinity.
3. Red Tide is scientifically referred to as “Harmful Algal Blooms”.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only           (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only           (d) All of the above

Q37.  Consider the following statements with respect to Aditya L1 Mission.

1. Aditya L1 is the world’s first space mission to observe the Sun.
2. It will be launched by ISRO to the L1 orbit (which is the first Lagrangian point of the Sun-Earth system) using PSLV XL.
3. In total Aditya-L1 has seven payloads, of which the primary and largest payload is the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC).

Select the correct option-

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Q38.  Consider the following statement about India Semiconductor Mission:

1. India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) has been set up as an Independent Business Division within Digital India Corporation having administrative and financial autonomy.
2. The programme aims to provide financial support to companies investing in semiconductors, display manufacturing and design ecosystems.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q39.  With reference to Employment elasticity, consider the following statements:

1. Employment elasticity is a measure of the percentage change in employment associated with a 1 percentage point change in economic growth.
2. When the employment elasticity is 1, employment increases at the same pace as economic growth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Q40.  Which of the following can be security concern/s of 5G technology?

1. Decentralized security.
2. More bandwidth will strain current security monitoring.
3. Lack of encryption early in the connection process.

Which of the following option(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only           (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only           (d) 1,2 and 3

Q41.  Consider the following statements-

1. India occupies about 2.4% of the total geographical area and consumes 4% of the total water resources.
2. There is no central law governing the use of groundwater in India.
3. The 2022 assessment suggests that groundwater extraction is the highest since 2004.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only

B. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3.

Q42.  Consider the following statements:

1. The Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022 empowers the government to establish carbon markets in India.
2. The share of agriculture-based carbon credits is the maximum out of total carbon credits traded globally.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans 1. C

Explanation:

• According to article 128 of the constitution, the Chief Justice of India may at any time, with the previous consent of the president, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court or of the Federal Court or who has held the office of a Judge of a High Court and is duly qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
• Article 127 of the Indian Constitution proposes that when a quorum of permanent judges is needed to continue or hold a Supreme Court session, the Chief Justice of India can nominate a High Court judge as an ad hoc Supreme Court judge for a specified time.

Ans 2. B

Explanation:

India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports. India’s service exports are more than its service imports. This means that India has a net service surplus. Software services constitute the bulk of India’s service export at around 40-45 per cent, followed by business services at about 18-20 per cent, travel at 11-14 per cent and transportation at 9-11 per cent. 

Ans 3. A

Explanation:

Reserve Bank of India was established by RBI Act 1934 on the recommendation of Hilton Young Commission. It regulates the Banking Sector in India under Banking Regulation Act 1949. State Bank of India was privatized in 1955 under the prime ministership of Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru. Other PSBs were privatized later in 1969 by prime minister Indira Gandhi.

Ans 4. C

Explanation:

FRESH is an acronym for Focusing Resources on Effective School Health, an inter-agency framework developed by UNESCO, UNICEF, WHO, and the World Bank launched at the Dakar Education Forum, 2000, which incorporates the experience and expertise of these and other agencies and organisations. It is a worldwide program for improving the health of schoolchildren and youth.

Ans 5. C

Explanation:

The theme of India’s G20 Presidency – “Vasudhaiva

Kutumbakam” or “One Earth • One Family • One

Future” – is drawn from the ancient Sanskrit text of the

Maha Upanishad. The Group does not have a permanent secretariat. The Presidency is supported by the Troika – previous, current, and incoming Presidencies. During India’s Presidency, the troika will comprise Indonesia, India, and Brazil, respectively. 

Ans 6. D

Explanation:

• Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity

Framework (GBF) includes 4 goals and 23 targets for achievement by 2030. Convened under UN auspices, chaired by China, and hosted by Canada, the 15th Conference of Parties to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity adopted the “Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity

Framework” (GBF). 

• Although the adopted Global Biodiversity Framework is not legally binding, countries will have to demonstrate progress towards achieving the framework’s goals through national and global reviews.

Ans 7. A

Explanation:

• It is an all-weather electronic surveillance system successfully designed and developed by Instruments Research          and      Development

Establishment (IRDE), Dehradun.

• The system has been deployed at Ladakh border area for day and night surveillance and facilitates monitoring and surveillance by automatically detecting the intrusions in harsh high-altitude subzero temperature areas with remote operation capability.

Ans 8. A

Explanation:

• Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL) is an Indian company responsible for maintaining the country’s strategic petroleum reserves. ISPRL is a wholly owned subsidiary of the Oil Industry Development Board (OIDB), which functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
• ISPRL maintains an emergency fuel store of a total 5.33 MMT (million metric tons) of strategic crude oil, enough to provide 9.5 days of consumption. Strategic crude oil storages are at three underground locations in Mangalore,

Visakhapatnam and Padur (Udupi, Karnataka).

Ans 9. B

Explanation:

A free trade agreement is an agreement in which two or more countries agree to provide preferential trade terms, tariff concession etc. to the partner country. Here a negative list of products and services is maintained by the negotiating countries on which the terms of FTA are not applicable hence it is more comprehensive than a preferential trade agreement. India has negotiated FTA with many countries e.g. Sri Lanka and various trading blocs as well e.g. ASEAN. 

Ans 10. B

Explanation:

The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Indian Constitution through 89th Amendment Act, 2003. The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting Scheduled but its recommendations are not binding on the government. The Commission and its officers participate in formulation of policies and in the developmental programmes for Scheduled Tribes including Tribal Sub-Plan. 

Ans 11. B

Explanation:

• In the eastern sector of the LAC India shares a 1140 km boundary with China.
• The boundary line is called McMahon Line which runs from the eastern limit of Bhutan to a point near the Talu Pass at the trijunction of Tibet, India, and Myanmar. China considers the McMahon line illegal which was proposed under the Simla Accord in 1914 to settle the boundary between Tibet and India, and Tibet and China. According to the Simla Accord, Tibet relinquished some of its territories, including Tawang, to the British but it was not recognised by China. In 1950, Tibet lost its de facto independence and was incorporated into the newly established People’s Republic of China.
• During the Sino-Indian war of 1962, Tawang fell briefly under Chinese control, but China voluntarily withdrew its troops at the end of the war.

Ans 12. D

Ans 13. B

Explanation:

• Satellite spectrum allocation is more complicated than its terrestrial communication methods (Mobile operators) because it needs global coordination.
• Setting up ground stations or gateways would require regulatory approvals in each country, and there could be inhibitions with conservative regulators. A communication satellite transmits the signal via a transponder by creating a channel between the transmitter and the receiver at different Earth locations.
• They can be found in geostationary, Molniya, elliptical, and low Earth orbits. Satellite communications tend to use high-frequency signals.

Ans 14. A

Explanation:

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved the “Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND)” scheme which will pave the way for the upgrade and expansion of the public service broadcasting infrastructure across the country.

Ans 15. C

Explanation:

• NBFCs lend and make investments and hence their activities are akin to that of banks; however there are a few differences as given below:
• NBFC cannot accept demand deposits.
• NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on itself.
• The deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in case of banks.

Ans 16. A

Explanation:

• INS Vikrant (IAC-I) is the first aircraft carrier built in India and the first Vikrant-class aircraft carrier built by Cochin Shipyard (CSL) in Kochi, Kerala for the Indian Navy.
• The motto of the ship is Jayema Sam Yudhi Sprdhah which is taken from Rig Veda and is translated as “I defeat those who fight against me”.
• The motto of the Defence Research and Development Organisation is “Balasya Mulam Vigyanam”—the source of strength is sciencedrives the nation in peace and war.
• It makes India only the fifth country after the US, Russia, Britain and France to have such capabilities of developing indigenous aircraft carriers.

Ans 17. D

Explanation:

• In organic farming, farmers might use “external agricultural inputs” such as rock phosphate, biopesticides and biofertilizers, but even these external applications are not required in natural farming.
• Organic fertilizers and manures, such as compost, vermicompost, and cow dung manure, are utilized and applied to farmlands in organic farming. Ideally, Natural farming does not use chemical or organic fertilizers on the soil. In reality, no additional nutrients are put into the soil or given to the plants.
• Generally, plowing, tilting, mixing manure, weeding, and other fundamental agro activities are required in organic farming. Ideally, there is no plowing, no soil tilting, no fertilizers, and no weeding in natural farming, precisely as it would be in natural ecosystems.

Ans 18. C

Explanation:

• he International Renewable Energy Agency

(IRENA) is an intergovernmental organisation that supports countries in their transition to a sustainable energy future, and serves as the principal platform for international and a repository of policy, technology, resource and financial knowledge on renewable energy. 

• IRENA promotes the widespread adoption and sustainable use of all forms of renewable energy, including bioenergy, geothermal, hydropower, ocean, solar and wind energy in the pursuit of sustainable development, energy access, energy security and low-carbon economic growth and prosperity. India is the 77th Founding Member of IRENA.
• The 11th session of the IRENA General Assembly was held virtually from 18th to 21st January, 2021 at Abu Dhabi. The Indian delegation led by Hon’ble Minister of State (IC) for Power & NRE, Secretary and Joint Secretary (IR) from MNRE have participated in the event. India was designated as one of the Vice Presidents for the 11th session of the Assembly of IRENA 2021.

Ans 19. D

Explanation:

• Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) was announced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in its Monetary Policy (2011-12) and refers to the penal

rate at which banks can borrow money from the central bank over and above what is available to them through the LAF window.

• The objective of MSF is to reduce volatility in the overnight lending rates in the interbank market and to enable smooth monetary transmission in the financial system.
• The MSF is the last resort for banks once they exhaust all borrowing options including the liquidity adjustment facility by pledging through government securities, which have a lower rate (i.e. repo rate) of interest in comparison with the MSF.

Ans 20. C

Explanation:

• The Cabinet led by Hon’ble Prime Minister had approved new integrated food security scheme for providing free foodgrains to Antyodaya Ann Yojna (AAY) & Primary Household (PHH) beneficiaries. New scheme has been named as Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana (PMGKAY). Implementation of the new scheme has started from 1st January 2023, benefitting more than 80 crore poor and poorest of poor people.
• Keeping in view welfare of the beneficiaries and in order to maintain uniformity across the States, free foodgrains will be provided under PMGKAY for the year 2023 to all PHH and AAY beneficiaries, as per entitlement under NFSA. The integrated scheme will strengthen the provisions of NFSA, 2013 in terms of accessibility, affordability and availability of foodgrains for the poor.
• For effective and uniform implementation of NFSA 2013, PMGKAY will subsume the two subsidy schemes of Department of Food & Public Distribution (a) Food Subsidy to FCI (b) Food Subsidy for decentralized procurement states dealing with procurement, allocation and delivery of free foodgrains to the states under NFSA.

Ans 21. B

Explanation:

• The doctrine was evolved by the Supreme Court in the 1973 landmark ruling in Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala. Supreme Court defines it from time to time. It is not defined by the constitution of India
• The Supreme Court has declared the power of judicial review as a basic feature of the Constitution or an element of the basic structure of the Constitution.

Ans 22. C

Explanation:

• Deepfakes are digital media – video, audio, and images edited and manipulated using Artificial Intelligence to create hyper-realistic digital falsification.
• Cybercriminals and even mischievous elements use AI softwares to superimpose a digital composite onto an existing video, photo or audio with a high potential to deceive people.
• Digital composite: Method of assembling multiple media files to make a final media file which consists of elements of different files.
• Deepfake techniques can be used to synthesize faces, replace facial expressions, synthesize voices, and generate news.
• Deepfake techniques rely on a deep learning technique called autoencoder, which is a type of Artificial Neural Network (ANN) that contains an encoder and a decoder..

Ans 23. C

Explanation:

• India hosted the Global South summit to articulate the views of the developing countries regarding the effects of the pandemic and the war in Ukraine.
• It was held under the theme – ‘Unity of Voice, Unity of Purpose’ – essentially envisages bringing together countries of the global south and sharing their perspectives and priorities on a common platform across a whole range of issues.
• The ‘Global South’ broadly refers to countries in Asia, Africa, and South America.

Ans 24. B

Explanation:

• Artificial Intelligence (AI) is fast becoming a part of all our lives, yet the number of people who understand AI as a technology is limited. With an aim to address this growing skills gap, build digital readiness among the next-generation, and continue the momentum of the inclusive and collaborative AI Skilling program initiated in 2020, National eGovernance Division, Ministry of Electronics & IT, Government of India, has launched the innovation challenge every youngster was waiting for, the ‘YUVAi- Youth for Unnati and Vikas with AI’ program.
• What is ‘YUVAi’ about?
• The National e-Governance Division, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India, in collaboration with its partners, has launched ‘YUVAi: Youth for Unnati and Vikas with AI’- A National Program for School Students with the objective of enabling school students from classes 8th to 12th with AI tech and social skills in an inclusive manner. The program will provide a platform for youth to learn and apply AI skills and be empowered to develop meaningful social impact solutions.

Ans 25. C

Explanation:

• Biopesticides are biologically based agents used for the control of plant pests. These are usually inherently less toxic than conventional pesticides.
• Biopesticide production is a high-risk venture requiring a high initial capital investment — right from the screening stage to the selection of potential strains for sale, packaging, storage, and distribution.
• Biopesticides often are effective in very small quantities and often decompose quickly, resulting in lower exposures and largely avoiding the pollution problems caused by conventional pesticides.

Ans 26. B

Explanation:

• The rankings are released by the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO). India rose to 40th among 132 countries in the Global Innovation Index 2022, jumping six places from a year ago.
• This was mainly due to an improvement in information and communication technologies (ICT) services exports, venture capital recipients’ value as well as finance for start-ups.
• India’s rank has risen by 41 places since 2015 when it was at the 81st spot. The country’s rank stood at 46 in 2021 in the index that tracks innovation both in government policies and industry practices.

Ans 27. A

Explanation:

• Active euthanasia involves a physician, who actively assists suicide by injecting lethal substances to accelerate death.
• Passive euthanasia is the withdrawal of nutrition and water and withholding of life-saving treatment, thus facilitating the person’s end, and relieving them from suffering.
• Active euthanasia remains illegal in India.

Ans 28. A

Explanation:

• The tax-to-GDP ratio is a measure of a nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its economy. This ratio is used with other metrics to determine how well a nation’s government directs its economic resources via taxation.
• Developed nations typically have higher tax-toGDP ratios than developing nations. Higher tax revenues mean a country is able to spend more on improving infrastructure, health, and education— keys to the long-term prospects for a country’s economy and people.
• According to the World Bank, tax revenues above 15% of a country’s gross domestic product (GDP) are a key ingredient for economic growth and, ultimately, poverty reduction.

Ans 29. C

Explanation:

• The E-Courts Project is being implemented since 2007 as a part of the National E-Governance Plan.
• The objective of the e-courts project is to provide designated services to litigants, lawyers, and the judiciary through universal computerization of the courts in the country and enhancement of ICT enablement of the justice system.

Ans 30. A

Explanation:

The Act does not create any distinction between the victim or the perpetrators on the basis of their gender. The statement of the child is to be recorded at his/ her place of residence and generally by a woman police officer. 

Ans 31. A

Explanation:

The gender inequality index (GII) provides insights into gender disparities in health, empowerment and the labour market. Unlike the human development index (HDI), however, higher values in the GII indicate worse achievements. The GII is a composite measure, reflecting inequality in achievements between women and men in three dimensions: reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market. The GII varies between 0 (when women and men fare equally) and 1 (when men or women fare poorly compared to the other in all dimensions). It is designed to reveal the extent to which national human development achievements are eroded by gender inequality and to provide empirical foundations for policy analysis and advocacy efforts. 

Ans 32. A

Explanation:

The linking canal will flow through Chhatarpur, Tikamgarh and Jhansi districts. The link will be in the form of a canal that will be fed by the new Daudhan Dam on the Ken. 

Ans 33. C

Explanation:

• The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) is a methodology adopted by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, to rank institutions of higher education in India. While participation in the NIRF was voluntary in the initial years, it was made compulsory for all government-run educational institutions in 2018. Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bengaluru ranked first in the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) rankings 2022 under the research and universities category.

Ans 34. A

Explanation:

• IBC 2016 is India’s bankruptcy law; it seeks to consolidate the existing framework by creating a single law for insolvency and bankruptcy. Till a few years ago, the process of winding up companies was regulated by the Companies Act, 1956, under the superintendence of courts–a notso-efficient process that resulted in undue delays.
• With the enforcement of IBC, the winding up procedure is now under the supervision of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), which ensures quick and prompt action during the early stage of debt default by a firm, thereby resulting in an optimum recovery rate.
• The prime objective of the IBC is to rescue corporate debtors in distress. The Code specifies a time-bound insolvency resolution process, including any litigation, which must be completed within 330 days. Undoubtedly, the IBC has been effective to a great extent so far; however, compliance with timelines remains an issue. The earlier envisaged timeframe of 180 days (+90 days extension) was increased to 330 days for resolving issues. Despite the extension, resolution plans continue to cross the deadline.

Ans 35. A

Explanation:

• The National Child Labour Project (NCLP)

Scheme is a central sector scheme under the aegis of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Under this Scheme, children in the age group of 9-14 years are withdrawn from work and put into NCLP Special Training Centres, where they are provided with bridge education, vocational training, midday meal, stipend, health care etc. before being mainstreamed into the formal education system. The children in the age group of 5-8 years are directly linked to the formal education system through close coordination with the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan. 

Ans 36. C

Explanation:

Red Tide is a phenomenon where certain phytoplankton species contain pigments and bloom such that the human eye perceives the water to be discolored. Factors influencing red tide events include warm ocean surface temperatures, low salinity, high nutrient content, calm seas, and rain followed by sunny days during the summer months. Red Tide is scientifically referred to as “Harmful Algal Blooms”. 

Ans37. B

Explanation:

• Aditya-L1 mission is India’s first space mission(Not globally) to observe the Sun and the solar corona. Helios 2 solar probe (a joint venture between NASA and the space agency of erstwhile West Germany), NASA’s Parker Solar Probe etc are the other space missions to study the Sun.
• It will be launched by ISRO to the L1 orbit (which is the first Lagrangian point of the Sun-Earth system) using PSLV XL. In total Aditya-L1 has seven payloads, of which the primary and largest payload is the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC).
• The satellite carries additional six payloads -Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT), Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment (ASPEX), Plasma Analyser Package for Aditya (PAPA), Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS), High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer (HEL1OS) and Magnetometer.

Ans 38. C

Explanation:

• India Semiconductor Mission:
• The vision of AtmaNirbharta in electronics & semiconductors was given further momentum by the Union Cabinet, chaired by the Hon’ble Prime Minister, approving the Semicon India programme with a total outlay of INR 76,000 crore for the development of semiconductor and display manufacturing ecosystem in our country. The programme aims to provide financial support to companies investing in semiconductors, display manufacturing and design ecosystem. This will serve to pave the way for India’s growing presence in the global electronics value chains.
• India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) has been setup as an Independent Business Division within Digital India Corporation having administrative and financial autonomy to formulate and drive India’s long term strategies for developing semiconductors and display manufacturing facilities and semiconductor design ecosystem. Envisioned to be led by global experts in the Semiconductor and Display industry, ISM will serve as the nodal agency for efficient, coherent and smooth implementation of the schemes.

Ans 39. C

Explanation:

Employment elasticity is a measure of the percentage change in employment associated with a 1 %-point change in economic growth. An employment elasticity of 1 denotes that employment grows at the same rate as economic growth. 

Ans 40. C

Explanation:

5G Security Concerns

• When it comes to 5g and cybersecurity, here are a few of the main concerns:
• Decentralized security. Pre-5G networks had less hardware traffic points-of-contact, which made it easier to do security checks and upkeep. 5G’s dynamic software-based systems have far more traffic routing points. To be completely secure, all of these need to be monitored. Since this might prove difficult, any unsecured areas might compromise other parts of the network.
• More bandwidth will strain current security monitoring. While existing networks are limited in speed and capacity, this has helped providers monitor security in real-time. So, the benefits of an expanded 5G network might hurt cybersecurity. The added speed and volume will challenge security teams to create new methods for stopping threats. o Lack of encryption early in the connection process. It reveals device info that can be used for device specific IoT targeted attacks. This information helps hackers know what devices are connected to the network. Details such as operating system and device type (smartphone, vehicle modem, etc.) can help hackers plan their attacks with more precision

Ans 41. C

Explanation:

India, with nearly 18% of the world’s population, occupies about 2.4% of the total geographical area and consumes 4% of total water resources. There is no central law governing the use of groundwater and various States have their own laws on regulating its extraction that is deployed in a perfunctory manner. The 2022 assessment suggests that groundwater extraction is the lowest since 2004 when it was 231 bcm. 

Ans 42. A

Explanation:

The Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022 empowers the government to establish carbon markets in India and specify a carbon credit trading scheme. As per the 2022 Report of the Ecosystem Marketplace, about 500 million carbon credits, valued at $1.98 billion, were traded globally in the voluntary carbon market in 2021. However, the share of agriculturebased carbon credits was minuscule — one million carbon credits worth $8.7 million.

Q1. Consider the following statements with respect to the National Credit Framework (NCrF):
1. A credit mechanism has been established for the first time for any type of school education in India.
2. The framework allows students to change the course or institution midway.
3. The credits earned remain valid for a lifetime duration.
4. A learner can earn only a fixed number of credits which cannot be increased in any case.
5. The credits and credit levels will be assigned differently to different areas of learning.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are NOT correct?
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only (d) 2, 3, 4, and 5 only

Q2. Consider the following statements about the India Digital Ecosystem for Agriculture (IDEA):
1. It will incorporate a National Farmers Database, a sort of ‘super Aadhaar’ for farmers.
2. The database will include farmer’s digitized land records cross-linked with the Aadhaar database to create a unique farmers’ ID
3. This database will enable anyone with access to it to know the extent of his cropping patterns and average yields.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above

Q3. Consider the following statements about the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC):
1. GEAC is a statutory committee.
2. Clearance of the GEAC is mandatory for the environmental release of Genetically Modified (GM) crops.
3. It is responsible for the appraisal of activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms.
4. The committee is responsible for the appraisal of proposals relating to the release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only (d) All of the above

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding religious freedom under Indian Constitution:
1. Article 25 is only available to India Citizens.
2. Freedoms under Article 25 are subjected to Morality and Public Order only.
3. There could be no taxes, the proceeds of which can be directly used for the promotion of religion.
Choose the correct option below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) Only 3

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC).
1. The Human Rights Council is an intergovernmental body within the United Nations system.
2. The Council is made up of 47 United Nations Member States which are elected by the UN Security Council.
3. The Human Rights Council replaced the former United Nations Commission on Human Rights in 2006.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q6. Consider the following benefits given to the institutes of Eminence’ selected under the Institute of Eminence Scheme:
1. The Institutions will have complete Administrative and Academic Autonomy.
2. They are provided with the freedom to recruit foreign faculty up to 50% of their total faculty.
3. They can take admissions of foreign students up to 30% of the total admitted students.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 only

Q7. Consider the following statements about the Gini Coefficient:
1. The coefficient ranges from 0 to 1 with 0 representing perfect inequality and 1 representing perfect equality.
2. The Gini coefficient is defined mathematically based on the Lorenz curve.
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q8. Consider the following climatic conditions for this crop-

“This plant requires heavy rainfall from 150 to 250 cm but stagnant water is harmful. It is grown on hill slopes at elevations from 600 to 1,600 meters above sea level. A hot and humid climate with temperatures varying between 15°C and 28 °C is required (d) It does not tolerate frost, snowfall, high temperatures above 30°C, and strong sunshine. It is generally grown under shady trees and well-drained, rich friable loams containing a good deal of humus is ideal.”
Which of the following crops is suitable for the aforementioned conditions?
(a) Rubber (b) Jute
(c) Coffee (d) Coconut

Q9. Which of the following single-use plastic items are prohibited under Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021?
1. Plastic sticks for balloon
2. Plastic flags
3. Thermocol For decoration
4. Earbuds with plastic sticks
Select the CORRECT answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q10. Which state shares its international border with both Bangladesh and Myanmar?
(a) Tripura (b) Mizoram
(c) Manipur (d) Assam

Q11. Consider the following statements with respect to the Washington Consensus:
1. It refers to a set of economic ideas, supported by prominent economists and international organizations, such as the ADB, the AIIB, the NDB, etc.
2. It minimized the state’s role in the economy and pushed an aggressive free-market agenda of deregulation,
privatization, and trade liberalization.
Which of the statement/s above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above

Q12. Which of the following refers to the Carbon budget?
(a) Total amount of greenhouse gases primarily carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere by a particular human activity.
(b) Long-term storage of carbon in plants, soils, geologic formations, and the ocean.
(c) Cumulative amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions permitted over a period of time to keep within a certain temperature threshold
(d) Credit for greenhouse emissions reduced or removed from the atmosphere by an emission reduction project

Q13. Consider the following statements regarding Adam’s Bridge (Ram Setu).
1. It is a chain of limestone shoals, between Pamban Island of Sri Lanka and Mannar Island of Tamil Nadu, India.
2. The bridge is 30 km long and separates the Gulf of Mannar from the Palk Strait.
3. Hindus believe that this structure was built by Lord Rama and his army of apes and monkeys to reach Ravana’s Lanka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q14. Consider the following statements regarding India’s labor force:
1. India’s female labor force participation rate (FLFPR) increased between 2000 to 2020.
2. Over 60% of women in the working age (15-59 years) group are engaged in fulltime housework.
3. Indian women represent nearly half of India’s population but contribute only about one sixth of GDP.
4. Share of the Indian workforce who have undergone any formal skills training is about 5 % of India’s total workforce.
Choose the CORRECT answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only

Q15. Consider the following statements about WTO:
1. It is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations.
2. The Ministerial Conference is the top decision-making body in WTO.
3. Ministerial conferences usually meet after every three years.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these

Q16. Consider the following statements:
1. A Non-Performing Asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment can remain overdue for a period of 180 days.
2. Assets which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months is termed as substandard assets.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding the Electoral Bonds:
1. These are instruments that are used to donate funds to political parties.
2. State Bank of India is authorized to issue and encash these bonds.
3. These are bearer bonds wherein the issuer is the custodian and pays the one who holds the bonds.
4. These bonds remain valid for 3 months from the date of issue.
Choose the correct option below:
(a) Only 1, 2, and 3 (b) Only 1, 2 and 4
(c) Only 2, 3, and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding
Indian Armed Forces.
1. The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces.
2. The Indian Armed Forces are under the management of the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India.
3. It is the world’s largest military force and has the world’s 2nd largest volunteer army.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q19. Consider the following statements
1. According to the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5), nearly 1 out of 3 children suffer from stunting in India.
2. The Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment (POSHAN) is implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
3. Over 85 % of births take place through Institutional births (deliveries) at all India levels.
Choose the CORRECT answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above

Q20. Consider the following statements regarding
the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT):
1. It is a proposed treaty to criminalize all forms of international terrorism and deny terrorists access to funds, arms, and safe havens.
2. It was proposed by the USA after the 9/11 attack.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q21. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana:
1. It gives monetary assistance of ₹3,000 to pregnant and lactating mothers for the birth of their first child.
2. The scheme is not applicable to those women who are employed by the Central or State governments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q22. Consider the following statements:
1. Under Article 343 of the Constitution, the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script.
2. The Eighth Schedule contains 22 languages including Hindi and English.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q23. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Democracy Index:
1. It is released by the Economist Intelligence Unit.
2. India has ranked 46th in the Democracy Index 2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q24. Consider the following statements regarding
the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID).
1. It is a statutory corporate body headquartered in Mumbai.
2. It is mandated to finance infrastructure and develop long-term bond and derivatives markets.
3. It is regulated and supervised by the Reserve bank of India under the Banking Regulation Act of 1949.
4. It has been declared as the fifth All India Financial Institution (AIFI).
Choose the CORRECT answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only (d) All of the Above

Q25. Consider the following statements about Finance Commission:
1. The Finance Commission (FC) is a statutory body that determines the method and formula for distributing the tax proceeds between the Centre and States.
2. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are binding upon the government.
Which of the above-given statements is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q26. Consider the following statements about 4G and 5G:
1. 4G has lower peak speeds than 5G.
2. 4G has lower latency than 5G.
Which of the above statement(s) is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q27. Consider the following statements about Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation (ALIMCO):
1. It is a Central Public Sector unit.
2. It works under the aegis of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q28. With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. It provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states.
2. It seeks to safeguard the rights of the tribal population through the formation of Autonomous District Councils (ADC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q29. Capital expenditure is the money spent by the government includes which of the following:
1. Acquiring fixed and intangible assets
2. Upgrading an existing asset
3. Repairing an existing asset
4. Repayment of loan.
5. Interest payment on past debt
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3, 4, 5 only (b) 1, 2, 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Competition Commission of India (CCI)-
1. It is a statutory body constituted under the Competition Act, of 2002.
2. The commission is a quasi-judicial body that gives opinions to statutory authorities and enforces the Competition Act.
Choose the INCORRECT answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q31 Which among the following is/are NOT part of the proposed five-fold strategy or ‘Panchamrita’ in CoP 26, Glasgow?
1. India will get its non-fossil energy capacity to 500GW by 2025.
2. India will meet 70% of its energy requirements till 2030 with renewable energy.
3. India will reduce its projected carbon emission by one billion tonnes by 2030.
4. India will achieve net zero by 2050.
Choose your answer from the options given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Q32. Consider the following statements about Fuel Cell technology:
1. Fuel cell technology relies on the chemical energy of hydrogen to generate electricity in a clean manner and effective.
2. Fuel cell vehicles are among the cleanest modes of transportation as they release no GHGs emissions.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these

Q33. Match the following:

Convention	Subject
1. Basel Convention	– Prior Informed Consent Procedure
2. Stockholm Convention	– Persistent organic pollutants
3. Rotterdam Convention	– Trans-boundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes

Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) All of these (d) Neither of these

Q34. Consider the following statements about UNCLOS
1) It is the only international convention that stipulates a framework for state jurisdiction in maritime spaces.
2) It is also known as the Law of Sea and it divides marine areas into 4 zones
Which of the following is correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both are correct (d) None of the above

Q35. Consider the following statements:
1. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is a standalone ministerial agency responsible for IT policy, strategy, and development of the electronics industry in India.
2. According to IT rules 2021 a grievance officer is expected to acknowledge receipt of the complaint within 24 hours and dispose of the same within 15 days.
Which of the above statements is/are Not correct?
(a) 1only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q36. Consider the following statements about MSME:
1. Currently MSMEs are classified based on their amount invested only.
2. It is the second largest employment-generating sector after agriculture.
Which of the above-given statements is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above
Q37. Consider the following statements about Green hydrogen:
1. Green hydrogen is defined as hydrogen produced from biomass like trees and plant materials.
2. Green hydrogen energy is vital for India to meet its Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC).
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these

Q38. SANKALP and STRIVE schemes are related to which sector
(a) Health (b) Education
(c) Skilling (d) Public Administration

Q39. Panchamrit is related to which of the following sector?
(a) Education (b) Health
(c) Energy (d) National Security

Q40. Which of the following is/are the likely consequences of farm loan waiver schemes:
1. It may increase fiscal deficits for States.
2. Cost of borrowing for States may increase.
3. It may limit the ability to undertake productive capital expenditure in the agriculture sector.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q41. Consider the following statements regarding Human Genome Project:
1. It began in 1990 and ended in 2003.
2. It helped in decoding the entire human genome.
3. India was a founding member of it.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q42. Consider the following statement about National Pension Scheme.
1. The scheme is applicable to all new recruits joining the Central Government service (Including armed forces) from April 1, 2004.
2. It is a participatory scheme, where employees contribute to their pension corpus from their salaries, with matching
contributions from the government.
3. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is the regulator for NPS.
4. Private individuals cannot opt for the scheme.
Which of the above statements is /are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, and 4 (d) 2 and 3

Q43. Which of the following countries are not part of the Gulf Cooperation Council:
1. Kuwait 2. Oman
3. Saudi Arabia 4. United Arab Emirates.
5. Iraq 6. Iran
Choose the correct option below:
(a) 2, 5 and 6 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 5 and 6 (d) None of the above

Q44. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers is to be responsible to both houses of the Parliament.
2. Article 75 states that there shall be a council of ministers to aid and advise the President.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q45. Consider the following statement:
1. Diesel-electric submarines need to resurface more frequently, making them easier to detect.
2. India is among six nations that have nuclear-powered submarines, alongside the US, the UK, Russia, France, and China.
3. India has INS Chakra 2, a type of nuclear-powered submarine. Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q46. Consider the following statements with respect to Interpol.
1. It was established in 1923 and India was a founding member of Interpol.
2. It is an international organization that facilitates worldwide police cooperation and crime control.
3. Research and Analysis Wing is India’s nodal agency for Interpol.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q47. Consider the following statements regarding trade relations between India and the EU:
1. Trade in goods between the two increased by about 30% in the last decade.
2. EU is India’s third-largest trading partner and the second-largest destination for Indian exports.
3. States such as Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Tamil Nadu have a 60% share in India’s exports to the EU.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only (b) 1 and 2 Only
(c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q48. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian rural economy:
1. Agriculture sector has seen a positive growth rate during the pandemic years.
2. The work hours demanded under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGA) have increased in the last 2 years.
3. The Government of India has steadily increased the Budget allocated to the MGNREGA in the last 3 years.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 only
Q49. Consider the following statements regarding Indus Water Treaty (IWT):
1. It was signed in 1947 at the time of Independence.
2. It was brokered by the World Bank.
3. Any Dispute regarding IWT directly goes to the Court of Arbitration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q50. Consider the following statements about Electronic Waste Management rules:
1. Consumer goods companies and makers of electronic goods have to ensure at least 60% of their electronic waste is collected and recycled by 2023.
2. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is the chief entity that coordinates the trade of EPR certificates.
3. The extended producer responsibility (EPR) certificates certify the quantity of waste collected and recycled in a particular year.
Which of the above statements is/are Not correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above

Q51. Consider the following statements about PMGKAY:
1. PMGKAY, was announced during the height of Covid to address the needs of the unemployed.
2. Recently it has been ‘merged’ with the National Food Security Act (NFSA).
3. 81.35 crore individuals, identified under the NFSA, will receive their usual five kg of food grains free of cost.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one statement is correct.
(b) Only two statements are correct
(c) All three statements are correct
(d) Some statements are incorrect.
Q52. Which of the following statements is correct regarding “Killer Acquisition” sometimes seen in the news
(a) It is an ecological phenomenon in which an organism acquires physiological traits which will make it immune to adverse environments.
(b) It is a trade deal in which a large firm buys an entrepreneurial startup in order to shut down the target firm’s projects before they become a competitive threat.
(c) It is the acquisition of a strategic war weapon which has the capacity to destroy the enemy territories completely.
(d) It is a situation when a larger Star captures another Star completely before it moves to the next phase of its evolution.

Q53. Consider the following statements:
1. A weapon of mass destruction is a nuclear, radiological, chemical, biological, or other devices that is intended to harm a large number of people.
2. India is a signatory to all the conventions related to weapons of mass destruction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q54. Consider the following statements:
1. Large eruptions of land-based volcanoes release huge amounts of water vapor, which can have a cooling effect.
2. The Hunga-Tonga-Hunga-Haapai volcano recently erupted for the first time.
3. This volcano is situated in the Indian Ocean.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are Not correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above

Ans 1.  C Explanation:

While there is currently no established credit mechanism for regular school education in India, there is a credit system under the open schooling system and a Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) for higher education. 

The framework offers flexibility in choosing courses, the option to change courses or institutions midway or to re-enter the education system after dropping out without losing years. 

According to the University Grants Commission (Establishment and Operation of Academic Bank Of Credits in Higher Education) Regulations notified in July 2021, the credits shall remain valid for a maximum duration of seven years. 

The learner would also be able to earn more than 40 credits in a year if they partake in any additional program/course beyond the prescribed 1200 learning hours or beyond the purview of the course syllabus. 

The credits and credit levels will be assigned uniformly between different areas of learning, i.e. arts and sciences, vocational and academic streams, and curricular and extracurricular activities. 

Ans 2. D

Explanation: It will incorporate a National Farmers Database, a sort of ‘super Aadhaar’ for farmers.

The database will include farmers’ digitized land records, and cross-linked with the Aadhaar database to create a unique FID, or a farmers’ ID.

The database is being built by Microsoft under the aegis of the Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare.

This database will enable anyone with access to it to-

• Uniquely identify a landholder
• Know the extent of his holding
• The state of the soil  Cropping patterns and average yields
• And other such information at a granular level.

Ans 3.  D

Explanation: The GEAC is the statutory committee constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro Organisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)” framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Clearance of the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is mandatory for the environmental release of Genetically Modified (GM) crops.

As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for the appraisal of activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle.

The committee is also responsible for the appraisal of proposals relating to the release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials.

 Ans 4.   D Explanation:

• Article 25 says that all persons (hence statement 1 is incorrect) are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion.
• These freedoms are subject to public order, health, and morality.
• Article 26 provides that every religious denomination has the right to
• Form and maintain institutions for religious and charitable intents.
• Manage its own affairs in the matter of religion.
• Acquire the immovable and movable property.
• Administer such property according to the law.
• The rights under article 26 are subjected to morality, health, and public order.
• Article 27 says that there could be no taxes, the proceeds of which are directly used for the promotion and/or maintenance of any particular religion/religious denomination.

Ans 5.  B

Explanation: The Human Rights Council is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system responsible for strengthening the promotion and protection of human rights around the globe and for addressing situations of human rights violations and make recommendations on them. It has the ability to discuss all thematic human rights issues and situations that require its attention throughout the year. It meets at the UN Office at Geneva.

The Council is made up of 47 United Nations Member States which are elected by the UN General Assembly. The Human Rights Council replaced the former United Nations Commission on Human Rights.

History

The Council was created by the United Nations General Assembly on 15 March 2006 by resolution 60/251. Its first session took place from 19 to 30 June 2006. One year later, the Council adopted its “Institution-building package” to guide its work and set up its procedures and mechanisms.

Among them were the Universal Periodic Review mechanism which serves to assess the human rights situations in all United Nations Member States, the Advisory Committee which serves as the Council’s “think tank” providing it with expertise and advice on thematic human rights issues and the Complaint Procedure which allows individuals and organizations to bring human rights violations to the attention of the Council.

The Human Rights Council also works with the UN Special Procedures established by the former Commission on Human Rights and now assumed by the Council. These are made up of special rapporteurs, special representatives, independent experts and working groups that monitor, examine, advise and publicly report on thematic issues or human rights situations in specific countries.

Review of the Council

When creating the Human Rights Council in March 2006 the United Nations General Assembly decided that the Council’s work and functioning should be reviewed five years after it had come into existence at the level of the General Assembly. 

10th Anniversary of the Council

In June 2016, the Council marked its tenth anniversary through several events.

Efficiency measures of the Council

In an effort to uphold and increase the efficiency of the

Council while addressing financial and time constraints, the Council adopted President’s statements at its organizational sessions of 3 December 2018, 6 December 2019 and 7 December 2020, containing concrete measures.

The Human Rights Council in 2021

The Human Rights Council recorded one of its busiest years. Under the presidency of Ambassador Nazhat S. Khan of Fiji – the first held by a representative from a small island developing state in the Pacific – the Council continued to introduce innovations, break boundaries and set new human rights standards. It did this against the backdrop of the COVID-19 pandemic, which continued to disrupt countless lives and livelihoods around the world.

Innovations

In a landmark decision, the Council passed a resolution recognizing the human right to a clean, healthy and sustainable environment for the first time.

For the first time in its 15-year history, the Council:

• enabled delegates to vote remotely
• attracted the highest number of dignitaries ever to speak at its sessions
• supported the participation of 19 delegates from least developed countries and small island developing states through its SIDS/LDCs Trust Fund
• Also, for the first time, the Council held five special sessions in 2021 – again demonstrating its effectiveness in responding to urgent global crises. These concerned: o Myanmar

o the Occupied Palestinian Territory, and Israel o Afghanistan o Sudan o Ethiopia

Activities

In 2021, the Council extended the mandates of 17 Special Procedures and investigative bodies – and created seven new mandates:  an accountability project on Sri Lanka

• a monitoring mission in Belarus
• a Commission of Inquiry on the Occupied

Palestinian Territory, and Israel

• a Special Rapporteur for Afghanistan
• a racial justice body addressing systemic racism in law enforcement around the globe
• a Special Rapporteur on climate change
• an investigative body for Ethiopia

Throughout the year, the Council enabled some 260 civil society organizations to deliver more than 900 statements.

The Council’s Universal Periodic Review Working Group held three sessions resulting in reviewing human rights situations in 41 states. Also, it held several thematic forums, panels and seminars between regular and special sessions.

Ans 6.   B

Explanation: UGC notified ‘UGC (Institutions of Eminence Deemed to be Universities) Regulations, 2017’ for private institutions and guidelines ‘UGC (Declaration of Government Educational Institutions as Institutions of Eminence) Guidelines, 2017’ for public institutions on 07.09.2017 to provide regulatory structure for enabling Higher Educational Institutions to become world-class teaching and research institutions.

OBJECTIVES OF THE SCHEME –

INSTITUTIONS OF EMINENCE:

• to provide for higher education leading to excellence and innovations in such branches of knowledge as may be deemed fit at post-graduate, graduate and research degree levels and award degrees, diplomas and other academic distinctions;
• to engage in areas of specialization to make distinctive contributions to the objectives of the university education system wherein the academic engagement is clearly distinguishable from programmes of an ordinary nature and is tuned to developing the capacity of the students and the researchers to compete in the global tertiary education marketplace through the acquisition and creation of advanced knowledge in those areas;
• to provide for high quality teaching and research and for the advancement of knowledge and its dissemination through various research programmes undertaken in-house by substantial number of full time faculty and research scholars in diverse disciplines;
• to pay special attention to teaching and research in unique and emerging areas of knowledge, including interdisciplinary areas, which are regarded as important for strategic needs of the country but are not being pursued by conventional or existing institutions so far, and award degrees, diplomas and other academic distinctions.
• to aim to be rated internationally for its teaching and research as a top hundred Institution in the world over time.

EXPECTATIONS FROM THE INSTITUTIONS OF EMINENCE:

Notable features present in existing international institutions of global repute, which figure at the top in all reputed ranking frameworks, include the following:

• Highly qualified faculty, with freedom to hire from across the world;
• Existence of academic, administrative and financial autonomy;
• Excellence in research;
• High Quality of teaching;
• High levels of funding;
• Adequate financial assistance to meritorious students to support a need-blind admissions process;
• Selection of students through a transparent system so as to ensure intake of meritorious students;
• A significant proportion of international students;
• Autonomous governance structures;
• Well-equipped facilities for teaching, research, administration, and student life;
• Tangible and intangible contribution to the society; and
• Ability to leverage alumni and alternative funding sources, and the autonomy to utilize these resources
• It should preferably be multi-disciplinary or interdisciplinary and have both teaching and research focus of an exceptionally high quality.
• It should offer inter-disciplinary courses, including in areas of emerging technology and interest as well as those of relevance to the development concerns of countries like India and also award degrees, diplomas and other academic distinctions in such interdisciplinary areas.
• It should have a good proportion of foreign or foreign qualified faculty.
• There should be a reasonably good mix of Indian and foreign students.
• There should be a transparent merit based selection in admissions, so that the focus remains on getting meritorious students.
• The admission process should be need-blind – so that once a student gets admission purely on merit, such a meritorious student should not be turned away for lack of financial ability.
• The faculty student ratio should be not be less than 1:20 at the time of notification issued declaring an Institution as an Institution of Eminence and should increase over time so as not to be less than 1:10 after five years of this date. The faculty for this purpose includes the regular faculty, adjunct faculty, and long term faculty (for at least three years). Part time faculty shall not be counted for the purpose.
• There should be laboratory facilities to undertake cutting-edge scientific research for those Institutions of Eminence Deemed to be

Universities doing scientific research. In case of humanities, social science and other interdisciplinary areas, the faculty should be engaged in research and field work in frontier areas using the latest methodologies.

• The Institution of Eminence should strive to achieve social impact by engaging in applied research and innovation in issues of concern to developing societies.
• The Institution of Eminence should develop teaching and research collaborations with a reasonable number of global universities figuring in the most reputed global rankings.
• The Institution of Eminence should be known for promoting a culture where faculty are encouraged to publish regularly in peer-reviewed journals and engage academically with the issues of concern to the society. It should have a record of research publications at the mean rate of at least one per faculty member each year in reputed peerreviewed international journals based on publication made by top 100 global Universities in these journals. For this purpose:
• The Institution of Eminence should have a worldclass library with subscriptions to reputed journals in the areas of courses it is offering.
• The Institution of Eminence should have student amenities comparable with that of globally reputed institutions.

Ans 7.   B

Explanation: What Is the Gini Index?

The Gini index, or Gini co-efficient, measures income distribution across a population. Developed by Italian statistician Corrado Gini in 1912, it often serves as a gauge of economic inequality, measuring income distribution or, less commonly, wealth distribution among a population.

The co-efficient ranges from 0 (or 0%) to 1 (or 100%), with 0 representing perfect equality and representing perfect inequality. Values greater than 1 are theoretically possible due to negative income or wealth.

Understanding the Gini Index

A country in which every resident has the same income would have an income Gini co-efficient of 0. Conversely, a country in which one resident earned all the income, while everyone else earned nothing, would have an income Gini co-efficient of 1.

The same analysis can apply to wealth distribution (the wealth Gini co-efficient), but because wealth is more difficult to measure than income, Gini co-efficients usually refer to income and appear simply as the Gini co-efficient or Gini index, without specifying that they refer to income. Wealth Gini co-efficients tend to be much higher than those for income.

Even in affluent countries, the Gini index measures net income rather than net worth, so the majority of a nation’s wealth can still be concentrated in the hands of a small number of people even if income distribution is relatively equal.

The Gini co-efficient is an important tool for analyzing income or wealth distribution within a country or region, but it should not be mistaken for an absolute measurement of income or wealth. A high-income country and a low-income country can have the same Gini co-efficient, as long as incomes are distributed similarly within each. For example, Turkey and the United States both have income Gini co-efficients of around 0.39–0.40, according to the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), despite Turkey’s vastly lower gross domestic product (GDP) per person.

Graphical Representation of the Gini Index

The Gini index is often represented graphically through the Lorenz curve, as depicted below, which shows income (or wealth) distribution by plotting the population percentile by income on the horizontal axis and cumulative income on the vertical axis. The Gini co-efficient is equal to the area below the line of perfect equality (0.5 by definition) minus the area below the Lorenz curve, divided by the area below the line of perfect equality. In other words, it is double the area between the Lorenz curve and the line of perfect equality.

Limitations of the Gini Index

Though useful for analyzing economic inequality, the Gini co-efficient has some shortcomings. The metric’s accuracy is dependent on reliable GDP and income data. Shadow economies and informal economic activity are present in every country. Informal economic activity tends to represent a larger portion of true economic production in developing countries and at the lower end of the income distribution within countries. In both cases, this means that the Gini index of measured incomes will overstate true income inequality. Accurate wealth data is even more difficult to come by due to the popularity of tax havens.

Another flaw is that very different income distributions can result in identical Gini co-efficients. Because the Gini attempts to distill a two-dimensional area (the gap between the Lorenz curve and the equality line) down to a single number, it obscures information about the shape of inequality. In everyday terms, this would be similar to describing the contents of a photo solely by its length along one edge, or the simple average brightness value of the pixels.

Though using the Lorenz curve as a supplement can provide more information in this respect, it also does not show demographic variations among subgroups within the distribution, such as the distribution of incomes across age, race, or social groups. In that vein, understanding demographics can be important for understanding what a given Gini co-efficient represents. For example, a large retired population pushes the Gini higher.

 Ans 8.   C

Explanation:

Rubber: requires more than 200 cm of rain and temperature above 25°C. Also it requires bright sunshine most of the times. 

Jute: is a water intensive crop grown in West Bengal and nearby areas and water logging takes place

Coffee: Heavy rainfall from 150 to 250 cm but stagnant water is harmful. So grown on hill slopes at elevations from 600 to 1,600 meters above sea level. Hot and humid climate with temperature varying between 15°C and 28 °C. It does not tolerate frost, snowfall, high temperature above 30°C and strong sun shine and is generally grown under shady trees. Dry weather is necessary at the time of ripening of the berries

Well drained, rich friable loams containing a good deal of humus and minerals like iron and calcium are ideal for coffee cultivation.

Coconut can survive on low rainfalls and grows well in areas with even 100 cm rainfall.

Ans 9.  D

Explanation:

Under the Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021 the manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of following single-use plastic shall be prohibited with effect from the 1st July, 2022:-

Earbuds with plastic sticks, plastic sticks for balloons, plastic flags, candy sticks, ice-cream sticks, polystyrene [Thermocol] for decoration, plates, cups, glasses, cutlery such as forks, spoons, knives, straw, trays, wrapping or packaging films around sweet boxes, invitation cards, and cigarette packets, plastic or PVC banners less than 100 micron, stirrers.

Ans10.   B

Explanation:

Bangladesh shares its border with the Indian states of Assam, Tripura, Mizoram, Meghalaya, and West Bengal. Myanmar shares its border with Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, and Mizoram

Ans 11.  B

Explanation:

The Washington Consensus refers to a set of broadly free market economic ideas, supported by prominent economists and international organizations, such as the IMF, the World Bank, the EU and the US. It was drawn from the advice of John Williamson. It minimized the state’s role in the economy and pushed an aggressive free-market agenda of deregulation, privatization, and trade liberalization. 

Ans 12.   B

Explanation:

A carbon budget is a cumulative amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions permitted over a period of time to keep within a certain temperature threshold. 

A carbon credit (also known as carbon offset) is a credit for greenhouse emissions reduced or removed from the atmosphere by an emission reduction project, which can be used by governments, industry, or private individuals to compensate for the emissions they generate elsewhere.

A carbon footprint is the total amount of greenhouse gases—primarily carbon dioxide—released into the atmosphere by a particular human activity.

Carbon sequestration is the long-term storage of carbon in plants, soils, geologic formations, and the ocean. It occurs both naturally and as a result of anthropogenic activities.

Ans 13.  B

Explanation:

Adam’s Bridge or Ram Setu is a chain of natural limestone shoals, connecting India and Sri Lanka. There is an ongoing debate if this structure is naturally formed or man-made.

There are only a few historical structures across the globe that link mythological and historical theories together. One such construction is Adam’s Bridge, also known as Ram Setu. Recently, the central government approved an underwater exploration, to study the structure and determine the age of the Ram Setu and its formation. This study will also help in understanding if the structure is as old as the Ramayana period. Also, there is a demand to make Ram Setu a national monument, although the matter is sub-judice. With this, it becomes more interesting to know if there are possibilities to link Indian mythology with modern day structures.

The Ram Setu bridge is a chain of natural mineral shoals between Pamban Island or Rameswaram Island in Tamil Nadu, India, and Mannar Island in Sri Lanka. The bridge has a great significance as per Hindu mythology and is mentioned in the Ramayana. the Structure has also intrigued scientists as studies are being undertaken to determine the age of the Ram Sethu bridge.  As the sea water near the coral reef is very shallow, navigation of ships is impossible, because of which ships have to take roundabout routes, to reach Sri Lanka.

The Sethusamudram Project was proposed, to provide a shortcut route from Pamban Island to Mannar Island in Sri Lanka. However, environmentalists say that the project could destroy the natural reefs, which had existed for thousands of years. Although the Sethusamudram Project was planned to be executed by deepening the Pamban pass, so that the Rama Sethu could also be preserved, the project is still at a standstill.

Oceanography research suggests that the bridge is 7,000 years old. This tallies with the carbon dating of beaches near Mannar Island and Dhanushkodi.

Ram Setu Bridge: Mythological significance Ram Setu was first mentioned in Valmiki’s Ramayana, a Hindu epic. The bridge is believed to have been built by Lord Rama’s Vanara Sena, with instructions from Nala, for Lord Ram to reach Lanka to rescue his wife Sita. According to legend, the bridge was built using floating stones, with name of Lord Rama engraved on it, which made it unsinkable. Apparently, Lord Rama prayed to the ocean, for a path from India to Lanka, so that he could go and rescue Sita from the clutches of Ravana, the king of Lanka.

As per Ramayana, 7th century BCE to 3rd century CE, the Ram Setu bridge was constructed by lord Ram, with the help of an army of Vanaras (monkeys), led by Lord Hanuman, to reach Lanka.

Ram Setu, also known as Adam’s Bridge, Nala Setu and Setu Banda, is the only archaeological and historical evidence of Ramayana. According to Hindu mythology, Ram Setu is a holy site. Therefore, no bridge should be built over it.

Ans 14.   C

Explanation:

What is LFPR?

According to the CMIE, the labor force consists of people who are 15 years or older, and belong to either of the following two categories:

• Are Employed
• Are unemployed and are willing to work and are actively looking for a job.

These two categories have people “demanding” jobs. This demand is what LFPR refers to. Thus, the LFPR essentially is the percentage of the working-age (15 years or older) population that is asking for a job. It represents the “demand” for jobs in an economy. It includes those who are employed and those who are unemployed.

The Unemployment Rate (UER), which is routinely quoted in the news, is nothing but the number of unemployed (category 2) as a proportion of the labor force. In India, the LFPR is not only lower than in the rest of the world but also falling. In India, it has been sliding over the last 10 years and has shrunk from 47% in 2016 to just 40% as of December 2021.

Ans 15.  A

Explanation:

What is the WTO?

The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal is to help producers of goods and services, exporters, and importers conduct their business.

Ans 16.   B

Explanation:

A non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a period of 90 days.

Banks are required to classify NPAs further into Substandard, Doubtful and Loss assets. Substandard assets: Assets which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months.

Doubtful assets: An asset would be classified as doubtful if it has remained in the substandard category for a period of 12 months.

Loss assets: As per RBI, “Loss asset is considered uncollectible and of such little value that its continuance as a bankable asset is not warranted, although there may be some salvage or recovery value.”

Ans 17.  A

Explanation:

The government of India introduced it with the Finance Bill 2017.

The Electoral bonds are instruments/securities that are used to donate funds to political parties. These bonds are on the lines of bearer bonds or promissory notes wherein the issuer (bank) is the custodian and pays the one who holds the bonds (political party).Hence, statement-3 is correct.

Electoral bonds are purchased anonymously by donors and are valid for 15 days from the date of issue. State Bank of India is authorized to issue and encash these bonds. As debt instruments, these can be bought by donors from a bank, and the political party can then encash them.

These can be redeemed only by an eligible party by depositing the same in its designated account maintained with a bank. The bonds are issued by SBI in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh and Rs 1 crore.

Ans 18.   C

Explanation:

The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces but the executive authority and responsibility for national security is vested in the Prime Minister of India and their chosen Cabinet Ministers. 

The Indian Armed Forces are under the management of the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India. It is the world’s secondlargest military force and has the world’s largest volunteer army.

Ans 19.  C

Explanation:

According to National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5)

• Child Nutrition is a concern because at all-India level.
• 36% of children suffer from stunting.
• 19 % of children suffer from wasting.
• 32% of children are underweight.
• Institutional births have increased substantially from 79% to 89% at all-India Level.
• The Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment (POSHAN) Abhiyaan which was launched in April, 2018 under the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).

 Ans 20.   A

Explanation:

The Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT) is a proposed treaty that intends to criminalize all forms of international terrorism and deny terrorists, their financiers, and supporters access to funds, arms, and safe havens. India proposed this convention in 1996 and not after the 9/11 attack. 

Ans 21.  B

Explanation:

The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) was announced on December 31, 2016 which gives a benefit of ₹6,000 to pregnant and lactating mothers for the birth of the first child.

₹5,000 would be disbursed in three installments upon meeting several conditionalities.

The remaining cash incentive of up to ₹1,000 is to be given under a separate scheme called the Janani

Suraksha Yojana so that on an “average” women get a total sum of ₹6,000.

The scheme is not applicable for those women who are employed by the Central or State governments or working in PSU’s.

Under the revamped PMMVY under Mission Shakti, the maternity benefit amounting to ₹6000 is also to be provided for the second child, but only if the second is a girl child, to discourage pre-birth sex selection and promote the girl child. 

Ans 22.   A

Explanation:

Under Article 343 of the Constitution, the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. The Eighth Schedule contains a list of languages in the country. Initially, there were 14 languages in the schedule, but now there are 22 languages. excluding English.

Ans 23.  C

Explanation:

The Democracy Index is an index compiled by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU), the research division of the Economist Group, a UK-based private company. India is ranked 46th on the 2021 index with an overall score of 6.91. It has been classified as a flawed democracy.  

Ans 24.   B

Explanation:

NaBFID is a principal Development Financial

Institution (DFI) established by the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) Act, 2021. It has been set up as a corporate statutory body with authorized share capital of one lakh crore rupees.

Currently it is headquartered at the Small Industries Development Bank of India’s (SIDBI) office in Bandra Kurla Complex, Mumbai. NaBFID is regulated and supervised as an All India Financial Institution (AIFI) by the RBI under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.  It is the fifth AIFI after EXIM Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI.(Statement-4 is correct) It is mandated to finance infrastructure and developing long term bond and derivatives markets.

Ans 25.  D

Explanation:

The Finance Commission (FC) is a constitutional body that determines the method and formula for distributing the tax proceeds between the Centre and states. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are of an advisory nature only and therefore, not binding upon the government 

Ans 26.   A

Explanation:

5G has lower latency i.e. Network latency is defined as the amount of time taken for a data packet to go from one place to another. Since it takes less time in 5G for this, therefore it will have low latency than 4G.

Ans 27.  A

Explanation:

Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation of India

(ALIMCO) is a Schedule ‘C’, Mini-Ratna Category II Central Public Sector Enterprise working under the aegis of Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Government of India. It was incorporated on 30.11.1972 registered under Section

25, Sub-section 1 clause (a) of the Companies’ Act, 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies’ Act, 2013) as a company formulated with charitable objects.

Main objects of the corporation are: –

• To promote, encourage and develop the availability, use, supply and distribution at reasonable cost in the country of Artificial Limbs and accessories and constituents thereof to needy persons particularly disabled Defense personnel, hospitals and such other welfare institutions.
• To establish facilities for the manufacture of Artificial Limbs and accessories and constituents thereof and all other things which can be or may conveniently be used for the manufacture of or in connection with such articles, things as aforesaid.
• To carry on the business of manufacturers, buyers, sellers, importers, exporters, dealers in and of Artificial Limbs and accessories and constituents thereof and all other things which can be or may conveniently be used for the manufacture of or in connection with such articles, things as aforesaid.
• To carry on the activity of promoting, imparting, launching, creating designing, adopting traditional, formal and creative means of imparting, inculcating, disseminating, diversified skills, education forms and personality development techniques by providing training, conducting seminars web seminars, counseling, e course, online classes with the intent of carrying on the business of educational and vocational skill development amongst the masses of India especially children, women, elderly and the differently abled persons either of its own or in association with any Department of the Central and State Government, National Skill development Corporation, Non-Government Organization and entities or any other body and to develop, promote, facilitate and otherwise provide educational, vocational, skill development and training materials, methods, programmes and related services at reasonable cost.
• To carry out the business of manufacturing, buyers, sellers, importers, exporters, traders and dealers in all kind of medical and Healthcare Equipment including Hospital Beds, Ventilators, Personal Protective Kits, masks, gowns, gloves sanitization & Disinfection system etc. for promoting healthcare and providing medical relief to Public at large at reasonable cost. The Corporation started manufacturing artificial aids and appliances in 1976. At present it has five Alimco

Auxiliary Production Centers (AAPCs) at Bhubaneswar (Orissa), Jabalpur (Madhya Pradesh), Bengaluru (Karnataka), Mohali (Punjab) and Ujjain (Madhya Pradesh). Sixth AAPC is coming up in Faridabad (Haryana). which is expected to be operational soon. The Corporation also has Pan-India presence through its five Marketing Centers at New Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Hyderabad & Guwahati. 

 Ans 28.   C

Explanation:

The Schedule protects tribal populations, providing autonomy to communities through the creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs), which can frame laws on land, public health and agriculture.

According to Article 244 of the Indian Constitution, the Sixth Schedule consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. As of now, 10 autonomous councils exist in the above 4 states. Along with ADCs, the 6th Schedule also provides for separate Regional Councils for each area constituted as an autonomous region.

Ans 29.  C

Explanation:

Capital spending is associated with investment or development spending, where expenditure has benefits extending years into the future. Capital expenditure includes money spent on the following:

• Acquiring fixed and intangible assets
• Upgrading an existing asset
• Repairing an existing asset
• Repayment of loan

Unlike capital expenditure, which creates assets for the future, revenue expenditure is one that neither creates assets nor reduces any liability of the government. Revenue expenditure includes:

• Salaries of employees
• interest payment on past debt  Subsidies, pension, etc. 

 Ans 30.   D

Explanation:

Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a statutory body constituted in March 2009. It is established under the Competition Act, 2002 which came into existence in place of the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act) in the aftermath of recommendations of the Raghavan committee.  The commission is a quasi-judicial body which gives opinions to statutory authorities and also deals with other cases. It is responsible for enforcing the Competition Act 2002. 

Ans 31.  C

Explanation:

• ‘Panchamrita’ meaning           the       ‘five     ambrosia’, includes:
• India will get its non-fossil energy capacity to 500 gigawatt by 2030
• India will meet 50% of its energy requirements till 2030 with renewable energy
• India will reduce its projected carbon emission by one billion tonnes by 2030
• India will reduce the carbon intensity of its economy by 45% by 2030
• India will achieve net zero by 2070.

 Ans 32.   C

Explanation:

Fuel cell technology relies on the chemical energy of hydrogen to generate electricity in a clean manner and effectively. Fuel cell vehicles are among the cleanest modes of transportations as they release no GHGs emissions

Ans 33.  B

Explanation:

• Basel Convention : Trans-boundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes
• Stockholm Convention :           persistent         organic pollutants
• Rotterdam Convention : Prior Informed Consent Procedure

Ans 34.   A

Explanation:

The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea was adopted in 1982. It lays down a comprehensive regime of law and order in the world’s oceans and seas establishing rules governing all uses of the oceans and their resources. It embodies in one instrument traditional rules for the uses of the oceans and at the same time introduces new legal concepts and regimes and addresses new concerns. The Convention also provides the framework for further development of specific areas of the law of the sea.

The Division for Ocean Affairs and the Law of the Sea

(DOALOS) of the Office of Legal Affairs of the United Nations serves as the secretariat of the Convention on the Law of the Sea and provides information, advice and assistance to States with a view to providing a better understanding of the Convention and the related Agreements, their wider acceptance, uniform and consistent application and effective implementation.  The Division monitors all developments relating to the Convention, the law of the sea and ocean affairs and reports annually to the General Assembly of the United Nations on those developments. It also assists the United Nations Openended Informal Consultative Process on Oceans and the Law of the Sea in reviewing such developments.

 

Ans 35.  D Explanation:

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is an executive agency of the Union Government of the Republic of India. It was carved out of the Ministry of Communications and Information Technology on 19 July 2016 as a standalone ministerial agency responsible for IT policy, strategy and development of the electronics industry. According to IT rules 2021 a grievance officer is expected to acknowledge receipt of the complaint within 24 hours and dispose the same in an appropraite manner within 15days. 

 

Ans 36.   B Explanation:

Before 2018, MSMEs were categorised based on the amount invested. After a change in regulations, they are classified based on their annual turnover, whether they operate in the manufacturing or service sector. It is the second largest employment generating sector after agriculture. It provides employment to around 120 million persons in India.

 

Ans 37.  B Explanation:

WHAT IS GREEN HYDROGEN AND HOW IS IT OBTAINED?

This technology is based on the generation of hydrogen — a universal, light and highly reactive fuel — through a chemical process known as electrolysis. This method uses an electrical current to separate the hydrogen from the oxygen in water. If this electricity is obtained from renewable sources we will, therefore, produce energy without emitting carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

As the IEA points out, this method of obtaining green hydrogen would save the 830 million tonnes of CO2 that are emitted annually when this gas is produced using fossil fuels. Likewise, replacing all grey hydrogen in the world would require 3,000 TWh/year from new renewables — equivalent to current demand of Europe. However, there are some questions about the viability of green hydrogen because of its high production cost; reasonable doubts that will disappear as the decarbonisation of the earth progresses and, consequently, the generation of renewable energy becomes cheaper.

 

HYDROGEN AS CLEAN ENERGY

Hydrogen is the most abundant chemical element in nature. As noted by the IEA, the global demand for hydrogen for use as a fuel has tripled since 1975 and reached 70 million tonnes a year in 2018. In addition, green hydrogen is a clean energy source that only emits water vapour and leaves no residue in the air, unlike coal and oil.

Hydrogen has a long-standing relationship with industry. This gas has been used to fuel cars, airships and spaceships since the beginning of the 19th century. The decarbonisation of the world economy, a process that cannot be postponed, will give hydrogen more prominence. In addition, if its production costs fall by 50 % by 2030, as predicted by the World Hydrogen Council, we will undoubtedly be looking at one of the fuels of the future.

ADVANTAGES AND DISADVANTAGES OF GREEN HYDROGEN

This energy source has pros and cons that we must be aware of. Let’s go over some of its most important good points:

• 100 % sustainable: green hydrogen does not emit polluting gases either during combustion or during production.
• Storable: hydrogen is easy to store, which allows it to be used subsequently for other purposes and at times other than immediately after its production.
• Versatile: green hydrogen can be transformed into electricity or synthetic gas and used for commercial, industrial or mobility purposes.

However, green hydrogen also has negative aspects that should be borne in mind:

• High cost: energy from renewable sources, which are key to generating green hydrogen through electrolysis, is more expensive to generate, which in turn makes hydrogen more expensive to obtain.
• High energy consumption: the production of hydrogen in general and green hydrogen in particular requires more energy than other fuels.
• Safety issues: hydrogen is a highly volatile and flammable element and extensive safety measures are therefore required to prevent leakage and explosions.

 

IMPACT OF GREEN HYDROGEN

Hydrogen as a fuel is a reality in countries like the United States, Russia, China, France and Germany. Others like Japan are going even further and aspire to become a hydrogen economy. Below we explain what the impact will be in the future:

  Electricity and drinking water generator

These two elements are obtained by reacting hydrogen and oxygen together in a fuel cell. This process has proved very useful on space missions, for example, by providing crews with water and electricity in a sustainable manner.

  Energy storage

Compressed hydrogen tanks are capable of storing energy for long periods of time and are also easier to handle than lithium-ion batteries because they are lighter.

Transport and mobility

Hydrogen’s great versatility allows it to be used in those consumption niches that are very difficult to decarbonise, such as heavy transport, aviation and maritime transport. There are already several projects under way in this area, such as Hycarus and Cryoplane, which are promoted by the European Union (EU) and aim to introduce it in passenger aircraft.

Ans 38. C

Explanation:

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved two new schemes in 2019: Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) and Skill Strengthening for Industrial Value Enhancement (STRIVE) to boost the Skill India Mission. Both are central sector with half of the scheme outlay as loan assistance from the World Bank.
The schemes are being implemented to satisfy the long-felt need for a national architecture for promoting convergence, regulating skill training, catalyzing industry efforts in vocational training space and ensuring effective governance.
The schemes shall set up national bodies for regulation of accreditation and certification in both long and short term Vocational Education and Training (VET). The architecture shall converge the efforts of the state, central and private sector institutions for creating a better impact. The schemes shall thus provide the required momentum for the National Skill Development Mission, 2015 and various other missions under the scheme.

Ans 39. C

Explanation:

Panchamrit refers to 5 targets that India aims to attain in the coming years to ensure India’s bid for a more GHG emissions-neutral world. It requires India to tweak its energy generation parameters towards cleaner sources of energy.

Ans 40. D

Explanation:

It increases the fiscal deficit of the state as the gross expenditure of state government exceeds the gross revenue which in turn causes low credit ranking for the state and so the cost of borrowing increases for the state.
Loan waivers increase the interest burden of the states andlimit their ability to undertake productive capital expenditure in the agriculture sector. It affects the long-term growth in the sector.

Ans 41. A

Explanation:

Human Genome Project (HGP), which began in 1990 and reached completion in 2003. About 92 per cent of the genome had been decoded under it. Recently, in a series of papers published in Science, a large team has accounted for that 8%, completing the picture of the human genome for the first time. India has started its own Genome India Project.

Ans 42. D

Explanation:

The scheme is applicable to all new recruits joining the Central Government service (except armed forces) from April 1, 2004.
On the introduction of NPS, the Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules, 1972 was amended. It is a participatory scheme, where employees contribute to their pension corpus from their salaries, with matching contribution from the government. Even private individuals can opt for the scheme. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is the regulator for NPS.

Ans 43. C

Explanation:

GCC is a regional, inter-governmental, political, and economic union comprising Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. Its main headquarters is located in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.

Ans 44. D

Explanation:

Article 74 states that there shall be a council of ministers to aid and advise the President. Whereas, Article 75(3) states that it will be responsible only to Lok Sabha.

Ans 45. D

Explanation:

flagship rural employment programme has received lower allocation — by about ₹25,000 crores (25% decrease) from RE 2021-22 of ₹98,000 crores.

Ans 49. B

Explanation:

Indus Waters Treaty, treaty, signed on September 19, 1960, between India and Pakistan and brokered by the World Bank.
The IWT also provides a three-step dispute resolution mechanism, under which “questions” on both sides can be resolved at the Permanent Commission, or can also be taken up at the inter-government level. In case of unresolved questions or “differences” between the countries on water-sharing, such as technical differences, either side can approach the World Bank to appoint a Neutral Expert (NE) to come to a decision.
And eventually, if either party is not satisfied with the
NE’s decision or in case of “disputes” in the interpretation and extent of the treaty, matters can be referred to a Court of Arbitration.

Ans 50. D

Explanation:

Consumer goods companies and makers of electronics goods have to ensure at least 60% of their electronic waste is collected and recycled by 2023 with targets to increase them to 70% and 80% in 2024 and 2025 respectively.
The rules bring into effect a system of trading in certificates, akin to carbon credits, that will allow companies to temporarily bridge shortfalls.
The extended producer responsibility (EPR) certificates certify the quantity of e-waste collected and recycled in a particular year by a company and an organisation may sell surplus quantities to another company to help it meet its obligations.
Companies will have to register on an online portal and specify their annual production and e-waste collection targets. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is the chief entity that coordinates the trade of EPR certificates.

Ans 51. C

Explanation:

Centre, on December 23, announced that the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY), announced during the height of Covid to address the needs of the unemployed. It will be ‘merged’ with the National Food Security Act (NFSA). The PMGKAY will be discontinued in its present form with effect from December 31; thereafter, 81.35 crore individuals, identified under the NFSA, 2013, will receive their usual five kg of food grains free of cost, as against the nominal rates of ₹3 or so that they pay now. However, the 10 kg that they have been getting for two years will stop.

Ans 52. B

Explanation:

It is the situation when a large firm may buy an entrepreneurial startup in order to shut down the target firm’s projects before they become a competitive threat. Because such acquisitions eliminate promising, but competing, innovation thus establishing the acquirer firm’s market hold.

Ans 53. A

Explanation:

A weapon of mass destruction is a nuclear, radiological, chemical, biological, or other device that is intended to harm a large number of people. India is a signatory to Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) and Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) but is not a signatory to the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty..

Ans 54. B

Explanation:

Large eruptions of land-based volcanoes don’t release much water vapour, but they can inject huge amounts of sulfur dioxide gas into the stratosphere, which can have a short-term cooling effect. The Hunga-TongaHunga-Haapai volcano has erupted regularly over the past few decades. This volcano is situated in the Pacific Ocean.

Q1. Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?
(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxidein the atmosphere
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Q2. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds ?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?
(a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government
(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
(c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
(d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government

Q4. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?
1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q5. Which of the following transactions comes under the current account of Balance of Payments?
1. Transactions in goods and services
2. Investment income
3. International asset transactions
4. Foreign aid
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

Q6. Consider the following statements:
1. The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Gramin (PMAY-G) was formerly called the Indira Awas Yojana and was renamed in March 2016.
2. It is targeted at promoting accessibility and affordability of housing for all of rural India with the exceptions of Delhi and Chandigarh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the REWARD Project:
1. REWARD is one of the largest water management programs around the world.
2. This project is a joint initiative of the Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Urban Development in association with the World Bank
3. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) will provide financial support to this project.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are NOT correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Q8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Gramin (PMAY-G) was formerly called the Indira Awas Yojana and was renamed in March 2016.
2. It is targeted at promoting accessibility and affordability of housing for all of rural India with the exceptions of Delhi and Chandigarh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q9. Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs launched a scheme PM SVANidhi scheme to:
(a) Facilitate working capital loans to the street vendors to help them restart their businesses which were adversely impacted due to the lockdowns imposed during COVID-19 pandemic
(b) reduce poverty and vulnerability of the urban poor households by enabling them to access gainful self employment
(c) address urban housing shortage among the economically weaker sections
(d) provide a guideline for cities and towns to ensure that no untreated waste-water is released into the environment

Q10. With reference to the National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS),
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was launched in 2016 to promote apprenticeship training in India and to provide financial support to establishments undertaking apprenticeship.
2. Sharing of basic training cost up to a maximum of Rs. 7,500 per apprentice is one of the components of this scheme.
3. It is not part of the Direct Beneficiary Transfer (DBT) scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only

Q11. The term ‘moron risk premium’ in news is related to
(a) The total amount of investments Asian countries received from the World Bank in the last decade.
(b) The Increased interest rates in Britain.
(c) Extra charges collected by OPEC countries from Asian countries when selling oil in comparison to Western Countries.
(d) Charges by Insurance providers on the movement of merchant ships in piracy prone areas.

Q12. ‘Reporters Without Borders’, often seen in the news, is
(a) a subsidiary of The Washington Post
(b) a non-governmental international organization
(c) an inter-governmental agency sponsored by European Union
(d) a specialized agency of the United Nations

Q13. Consider the following statements regarding Adaptation Gap Report (AGR).
1. It has been published by the World Meteorological Organization since 2014.
2. It provides an annual science-based assessment of the global progress on adaptation planning, financing, and implementation.
3. UNEP’s Adaptation Gap Report 2022 expected that developing countries’
4 eEtimated annual adaptation needs are USD 160-USD 340 billion by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q14. Consider the following statements about the
National Common Mobility Card (NCM(C):
1. NCMC is an inter-operable transport card conceived by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs of the Government of India.
2. The transport card enables the user to pay for toll duties.
3. It is enabled through the RuPay card mechanism.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above

Q15. Major General SR Sinho Committee, sometimes seen in the news, is related to:
(a) Modernization of defence forces
(b) Economically weaker section reservation
(c) Police reform
(d) Improving the defence manufacturing ecosystem

Q16. Which of the following cases is/are related to decriminalization of politics?
1. Association for Democratic Reform (ADR) vs. Union of India in 2002.
2. Public Interest Foundation and Ors. vs Union of India 2014.
3. Rambabu Singh Thakur v Sunil Arora 2020.
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1 and 2 Only (b) 2 and 3 Only
(c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 3 Only

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC(C)-
1. It came into existence at the Earth Summit of 1992.
2. Its 27th Conference of Parties (COP-27) is set to take place in Sharm El Sheikh, Egypt.
3. The Paris Agreement, which is a legally binding treaty, was endorsed at the COP-15 of the UNFCCC.
Choose the CORRECT answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above

Q18. Consider the following statements:
1. Central Universities are set up through an Act in Parliament.
2. For 2022-23, the budget for school education spending has increased while it decreased for the higher education by 13 per cent.
Which of the above statements is/are Correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q19. Consider the following statements about the Section 230 of the Communications Decency Act of 1996:
1. It shields the websites from civil lawsuits arising out of illegal content posted by the website’s users.
2. Websites retain this lawsuit immunity even if they engage in content moderation that removes or restricts access to or availability of material posted on their site.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q20. Consider the following statements about GSLV Mk-III:
1. It is composed of two solid strap on motors, a core liquid booster and an upper cryogenic stage.
2. It can carry up to 4000kg of satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q21. Consider the following statements regarding National Education Policy 2020.
1. It is drafted by the K.Kasturirangan Committee.
2. National Research Foundation (NRF) to fund outstanding research and to actively seed research in universities and colleges.
3. National Educational Technology Forum for proper use of technology in the domains of teaching, learning, assessment administration and management systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT):
1. It is a proposed treaty to criminalize all forms of international terrorism and deny terrorist access to funds, arms, and safe havens.
2. It was proposed by the USA after the 9/11 attack.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q23. Consider the following statements regarding Periodic Labour Force Survey.
1. It is prepared by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
2. It gives estimates of Key employment and unemployment Indicators like, the Labour Force Participation Rates (LFPR), Worker
Population Ratio (WPR), Unemployment Rate (UR), etc.
3. Annual Report of periodic labour force survey 2020-21 finds that India’s female work participation rate at 65 per cent in 2020-21.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q24. With reference to the ‘contract farming’, consider the following statements:
1. Currently all states have their Agricultural Produce Marketing Regulation (APMR) Acts for contract farming.
2. Contract farming requires registration with the NABARD.
3. Contract farming enhances market linkages and reduces dependence on middlemen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Q25. He was a 16th-century chieftain under the erstwhile Vijayanagara Empire. He is credited with laying the foundation of what is today known as Bengaluru city in 1537. He was
(a) Harihara I (b) Sadasiva Raya
(c) Rama Deva Raya (d) Kempegowda

Q26. Consider the following statements:
1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only

Q27. Consider the following statements regarding Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of a state?
1. Exclusive Economic Zone does not come within the territorial waters of the state.
2. Use of marine resources from EEZ is not permitted unless agreed to by neighbouring states.
3. It is a sea zone prescribed by the United Nations Convention on the Law on the Seas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q28. Which of the following organization released ‘Environment Programme’s Adaptation Gap Report 2022’?
(a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
(c) Greening Earth Society
(d) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED)

Q29. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unifie Payments Interface (UPI)’.
(a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
(b) Digital currency will totally replace physical currency in about two decades.
(c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.
(d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.

Q30. Consider the following statements1. The United States has over 50 percent share of the total worldwide Silicon Chip market.
2. The “OPEC” countries are home to about 80% of the world’s known petroleum reserves.
Which of the statements given above is/are Not correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q31. Consider the following statements regarding the recently launched NIPUN Bharat Mission.
1. The Mission has been launched under the aegis of Samagra Shiksha Scheme.
2. It focuses on providing access and retaining children in foundational years of schooling.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q32. With reference to The Places of Worship Act, 1991, consider the following statements:
1. It was enacted to freeze the status of all places of worship in the country as it was in 1991.
2. It will not apply to ancient and historical monuments and archaeological sites and remains that are covered by the AMASR Act 1958.
3. It manifests the secular values of the Constitution and strictly prohibitsretrogression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q33. Consider the following statements regarding Central Electricity Authority.
1. It is a statutory organization constituted in 1951 and works as per the Electricity Act 2003.
2. The Central Electricity Authority of India (CEA) advises the government on policy matters and formulates plans for the development of electricity systems.
3. It is a key regulator of the power sector in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are Not correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q34. Which of the following countries is/are part of High-risk Jurisdiction or blacklist of the Financial Action Task Force?
1. Pakistan 2. Iran
3. North Korea 4. Syria
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Q35. Consider the following statements regarding the Census of India:
1. The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011.
2. Post-Independence, it has been conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. Post-Independence, Socio-Economic Caste census was first conducted in 2011
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q36. Which of the following organizations brings World Investment Report?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
(c) World Bank
(d) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)

Q37. Consider the following statements about Jal Jeevan Mission:
1. JJM aims to ensure assured tap water supply or ‘Har Ghar Jal’ to all households all over India by 2024.
2. It also ensures conjunctive use of conserved water; drinking water source augmentation, drinking water supply system, grey water treatment and its reuse.
Which of the above given statements is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these

Q38. Consider the following statements:
1. The scope of the President’s pardoning power under Article 72 is wider than the pardoning power of the Governor under Article 161.
2. The Governor can commute a death sentence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q39. Which of the following organisations brings out the Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index?
(a) World Bank
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) UN World Tourism Organisation
(d) Asian Development Bank

Q40. Consider the following statements:
1. Residue-free farming techniques can grow crops using synthetic pesticides.
2. Residue-free farming technique is an agricultural system that relies on pest controls and bio-fertilisers.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of the above

Q41. Consider the following statements:
1. According to Article 21 deprivation of life is constitutionally permissible.
2. Project 39A is a research and litigation initiative focused on the criminal justice system.
3. Law Commission in its 262nd report proposed that the death penalty should be abolished.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above

Q42. Consider the following statements aboutJerdon’s Courser :
1. The species is endemic to the NorthEastern region of India.
2. The IUCN status of the species isvulnerable.
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both (d) Neither

Q43. Consider the following statements:
1. Carbon sequestration is the process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide.
2. The method of carbon sequestration is biological, geological, and technological.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither of these

Q44. Consider the following sentences:
1. The status of Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly of Delhi is an outcome of the 69th Amendment Act.
2. In 2018 Supreme Court ordered that L-G is bound by the aid and advice of the council of ministers of Delhi.
3. According to GNCT of Delhi (Amendment) Act 2021 “government” in the National Capital Territory of Delhi means the Lieutenant-Governor of Delhi.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above

Q45. Which of the following is NOT the criteria for the designation of a wetland under the Ramsar Convention?
(a) It supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies
(b) It regularly supports 2000 or more waterbirds.
(c) It supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of wetland species.
(d) It supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities.

Q46. Budapest Convention is related to which of the following
(a) Missile technology control
(b) Space nuclearisation
(c) Women rights
(d) Cybercrime

Q47. Issues under which of the following statutes can be brought up before the National Green Tribunal?
1. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
2. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
3. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
4. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Q48. Consider the following statements regarding Santiago Network.
1. Santiago Network was established to connect developing countries to providers of technical assistance, knowledge, and resources.
2. It was established in COP 27 of UNFCCC which was held in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt.
3. In COP27, Parties agreed on the institutional arrangements to operationalise the Santiago Network for Loss and Damage.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 2 only

Q49. Which of the following multilateral grouping has both Australia and India as the members.
1. Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD)
2. Supply Chain Resilience Initiative.
3. Indo-Pacific Economic Forum (IPEF)
4. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
Choose the CORRECT answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Q50. Consider the following statements regarding Northeastern states.
1. Assam and Meghalaya both states are listed in the 5th schedule of Indian Constitution.
2. The Sixth Schedule provides provisions for the administration of tribal areas to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states.
3. It provides for autonomy in the administration of these areas through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q51. Consider the following with reference to the impeachment of a high court judge.

1. The procedure for the impeachment of a judge of a high court is the same as that for a judge of the Supreme Court.
2. Only the Chief Justice of India can pass the final order for the removal of a high court judge post-impeachment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q52. Consider the following statements regarding Northeastern states.
1. Assam and Meghalaya both states are listed in the 5th schedule of Indian Constitution.
2. The Sixth Schedule provides provisions for the administration of tribal areas to
safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states.
3. It provides for autonomy in the administration of these areas through Autonomous District Councils (ADCs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3